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1 | Subject | Session | Question No. | Image: | Question: | Correct Option. | Page No. | Reference | |||||||||||||||||||
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3 | ANATOMY | Session 1 | 1 |  | Sensation of which of the following structures are affected if a ?tumour/ lesion compresses the structures passing through this opening of the skull? A. Sensation of nasopharynx B. Mucosa of nasal cavity C. Sensation in anterior scalp and dorsum of nose D. Sensation of chin | 20 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 15 Reference Text: "The supraorbital nerve, a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, exits through the supraorbital foramen to provide sensation to the anterior scalp and dorsum of the nose." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 20 Reference Text: "Structures passing through the skull foramina include the supraorbital nerve, which innervates the anterior scalp and the dorsum of the nose, essential for sensation in these areas." | ||||||||||||||||||||
4 | 2 | Chronic tobacco consumer, went to dental clinic with bleeding lesions on tongue was diagnosed with Ca tongue. Which of the papillae does not have taste buds? A. Circumvallate B. Filiform C. Fungiform D. Foliate | 15 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 23 Reference Text: "Filiform papillae are keratinized, provide mechanical function, and lack taste buds. They are most numerous and cover the dorsal surface of the tongue." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 15 Reference Text: "Taste buds are present on fungiform, foliate, and circumvallate papillae but are absent on filiform papillae, which serve a mechanical role." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
5 | 3 | An absent gag reflex can result from injury to which nerve? A. 9 & 10 B. 7 & 10 C. 7 & 5 D. 5 & 9 | 34 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 18 Reference Text: "The gag reflex involves sensory input via the glossopharyngeal nerve and motor output via the vagus nerve. Damage to either nerve can abolish the reflex." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 34 Reference Text: "Cranial nerves IX and X are responsible for the gag reflex, with the glossopharyngeal providing sensation and the vagus mediating motor response." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
6 | 4 | Which artery is used for AV shunting with the great saphenous vein for haemodialysis & that artery present behind medial malleolus and 2.5 cm is front of tendo calcaneus? A. Anterior tibial artery B. Posterior tibial artery C. Peroneal D. Fibular circumflex | 41 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 32 Reference Text: "The posterior tibial artery lies posterior to the medial malleolus and anterior to the Achilles tendon, making it accessible for vascular procedures such as AV shunting." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 41 Reference Text: "Posterior tibial artery is a key structure for vascular access near the ankle, positioned behind the medial malleolus and anterior to the tendo calcaneus." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
7 | 5 |  | What is the outer covering? A. Endoderm B. Ectoderm C. Chorion D. Amnion | 24 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 14 Reference Text: "The amnion forms the innermost covering around the fetus, enclosing the amniotic cavity and fluid." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 24 Reference Text: "The amnion is the innermost fetal membrane, forming a protective sac filled with amniotic fluid to cushion the fetus." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
8 | Session 2 | 6 |  | Where will you find the epithelium shown in the image? A. Ureter B. Gall bladder C. Duodenum D. Trachea | 36 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 28 Reference Text: "The ureter is lined by transitional epithelium, allowing it to stretch during the passage of urine while maintaining impermeability." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 36 Reference Text: "Transitional epithelium is found in the urinary tract, including the renal pelvis, ureters, and bladder, allowing distension and contraction." | |||||||||||||||||||||
9 | 7 | Patient complains of decreased sensation in the lateral 3 and half fingers of palmar side of the right hand along with difficulty moving the upper phalanx of thumb. Associated thenar atrophy is also present. What is the associated nerve injury in this case? A. High radial nerve B. High median nerve C. High ulnar nerve D. Carpel tunnel syndrome | 45 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 38 Reference Text: "High median nerve injury affects both motor and sensory components, causing loss of sensation in the lateral 3.5 fingers, weakness in thumb flexion and abduction, and atrophy of thenar muscles." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 45 Reference Text: "A high median nerve lesion presents with sensory loss over the lateral palm and fingers, along with motor deficits such as inability to flex the thumb and index finger." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
10 | 8 | An elderly woman reports difficulty in buttoning her shirt and increased clumsiness in performing daily activities. On examination, the clinician asked her to make an ‘O’ using her thumb and index finger, which she was unable to do. Which of the following muscles is involved? A. Opponens pollicis B. Abductor pollicis brevis C. Palmar interossei D. Flexor pollicis brevis | 45 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 34 Reference Text: "The abductor pollicis brevis assists in thumb abduction and plays a key role in opposition movements, particularly during precision tasks like forming an 'O' with the thumb and index finger." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 45 Reference Text: "Impairment of the abductor pollicis brevis, a muscle supplied by the median nerve, results in difficulty with thumb abduction and opposition, critical for precision tasks." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
11 | 9 |  | Identify the marked structure: A. Medial pectoral nerve B. Thoracodorsal nerve C. Subscapular nerve D. Long thoracic nerve | 49 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 45 Reference Text: "The medial pectoral nerve supplies the pectoralis major and minor muscles. It arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus and is visible in dissection of the axilla." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 49 Reference Text: "Medial pectoral nerve innervates the pectoralis muscles and is a branch of the medial cord, coursing along the axilla." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
12 | 10 | During examination of a patient with an intern, the professor asks the patient to invert his foot and he points at the prominent tendon behind the medial malleolus. Which is the tendon being pointed at here? A. Tibialis anterior B. Tibialis posterior C. Extensor digitorum D. Extensor hallucis longus | 38 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 29 Reference Text: "The tibialis posterior tendon passes posterior to the medial malleolus and is involved in foot inversion and plantar flexion. It is a key structure in the medial ankle region." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 38 Reference Text: "Inversion of the foot engages the tibialis posterior muscle, whose tendon passes behind the medial malleolus, making it palpable during this movement." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
13 | 11 | Patient presents with sciatica and tenderness in hamstring muscles. Which nerve supplies the hybrid muscle which will be spared in this condition? A. Common peroneal N B. Obturator N C. Tibial N D. Femoral N | 43 | Reference 1: Anatomy Q Bank Module Number: Module 31 Reference Text: "The adductor magnus has a dual innervation: the hamstring portion by the sciatic nerve and the adductor portion by the obturator nerve. The latter is unaffected in sciatic nerve lesions." Reference 2: Anatomy Notes Page Number: 43 Reference Text: "Obturator nerve supplies the adductor muscles, including the adductor part of the adductor magnus, which is spared in sciatic nerve compression or injury." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
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15 | Subject | Session | Question No. | Image: | Question: | Correct Option. | Page No. | Reference | |||||||||||||||||||
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17 | PHYSIOLOGY | Session 1 | 1 | In order to prevent polyspermy, what is the reaction in the zona pellucida of oocyte after fertilization? A. Acrosomal reaction B. Cortical reaction C. Increased membrane potential of the oocyte D. Decreased membrane potential of the oocyte | 18 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 14 Reference Text: "The cortical reaction involves the release of cortical granules from the oocyte, which alter the zona pellucida to block polyspermy after fertilization." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 18 Reference Text: "Following sperm entry, the cortical reaction prevents further sperm penetration by modifying the structure of the zona pellucida." | |||||||||||||||||||||
18 | 2 | Sour taste is mediated by? A. TRP channel B. Metabolic receptor C. T1R1 GPCR D. T1R3 GPCR | 32 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 25 Reference Text: "Sour taste is mediated by ion channels, particularly TRP channels, which respond to the presence of protons in acidic solutions." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 32 Reference Text: "TRP channels, such as PKD2L1, are involved in the perception of sour taste, detecting hydrogen ions (H⁺) from acidic substances." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
19 | 3 | What are the effects of posterior lesion in a Brodmann area 22 in a stroke patient? A. Receptive speech function B. Visual C. Expressive speech function D. Auditory | 29 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 22 Reference Text: "Lesions in Brodmann area 22, especially in the dominant hemisphere, impair receptive speech, leading to Wernicke's aphasia characterized by fluent but nonsensical speech and poor comprehension." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 29 Reference Text: "Brodmann area 22 in the dominant hemisphere is involved in language comprehension. Damage leads to Wernicke's aphasia with impaired receptive speech and understanding." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
20 | 4 | Incorrect about iron absorption is? A. Ferrireductase convert Fe2+ to Fe 3+ B. RBC protoporphyrin increased C. Iron excretion only through skin, gut, urothelial cells D. Body cannot compensate if more than 10 ml RBC per day is lost in urine | Skip | ||||||||||||||||||||||||
21 | 5 | In type 2 diabetes mellitus patients, serum insulin levels are found to be raised. he is advised to exercise to improve insulin resistance. Which of the following GLUT will help to improve insulin resistance after exercise? A. GLUT 1 B. GLUT 2 C. GLUT 4 D. GLUT 5 | 51 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 30 Reference Text: "GLUT 4 is an insulin-dependent glucose transporter in muscle and adipose tissue. Exercise increases GLUT 4 activity, improving glucose uptake independent of insulin action." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 51 Reference Text: "Physical activity promotes translocation of GLUT 4 to the membrane in skeletal muscle, enhancing glucose uptake and reducing insulin resistance." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
22 | 6 | Patient presented with a chronic tingling sensation in the forearm. A neurological examination was done. Which of the following receptors are responsible for this? A. PACINIAN corpuscle - fast vibration B. Ruffini - fine touch C. Merkel - slow vibration D. Meissner - stretch | 27 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 18 Reference Text: "Pacinian corpuscles are rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors that detect high-frequency vibration and pressure changes." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 27 Reference Text: "Mechanoreceptors like Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to fast vibration and pressure, playing a role in tactile sensation and proprioception." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
23 | 7 | Pt came with a puncture wound on the left chest wall. Radiological investigations confirmed pneumothorax. Which of the following is correct? A. Lung volume increases, thoracic volume increases B. Lung volume increases, thoracic volume remains same C. Lung volume increases, thoracic volume decreases D. Lung volume decreases, thoracic volume increases | 59 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 41 Reference Text: "In pneumothorax, air in the pleural cavity leads to lung collapse and an increase in thoracic cavity volume due to the loss of lung recoil force." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 59 Reference Text: "Pneumothorax results in a decrease in lung volume as the lung collapses, with compensatory expansion of the thoracic cavity on the affected side." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
24 | 8 | A patient who underwent right limb amputation 2 years back, now presents with severe pain in the limb (Phantom limb pain). On radiological investigations, what is the finding seen? A. Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap the RIGHT somatosensory cortex B. Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap the LEFT somatosensory cortex C. Expansion of LEFT somatosensory cortex D. Expansion of RIGHT somatosensory cortex | 61 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 49 Reference Text: "After limb amputation, the contralateral somatosensory cortex undergoes reorganization, where adjacent sensory areas project onto the cortical region of the missing limb." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 61 Reference Text: "Phantom limb pain involves cortical remodeling in the contralateral somatosensory cortex, with adjacent areas projecting onto the representation of the amputated limb." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
25 | 9 | A 30 year female went on vacation and fell asleep while sitting in a beach, after some time she woke with Sunburn. Later when she went back home, she experienced PAIN while taking WARM BATH (40O C). which of the following receptors is responsible for the pain? A. Innocuous Thermal receptor - ALLODYNIA B. Innocuous Thermal receptor - HYPERALGESIA C. Thermal receptor - ALLODYNIA D. Thermal receptor - HYPERALGESIA | 37 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 27 Reference Text: "Allodynia occurs when non-painful stimuli, such as warm temperatures, are perceived as painful due to sensitization of innocuous thermal receptors following tissue injury." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 37 Reference Text: "Innocuous thermal receptors, when sensitized, can mediate allodynia, a condition where normally harmless temperatures evoke pain, commonly seen in sunburned skin." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
26 | Session 2 | 10 | Arrange the sequence of steps involved at neuromuscular junction endplate potential: A. Calcium entry - ACH RELEASE - Na+ entry B. Chloride entry - ACH RELEASE - Na+ entry C. Na+ in end plate potential D. depolarization/ repolarization | 23 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 16 Reference Text: "At the neuromuscular junction, calcium entry into the nerve terminal leads to acetylcholine release, which then facilitates sodium influx into the muscle endplate to generate an endplate potential." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 23 Reference Text: "The sequence of events in synaptic transmission involves calcium influx, neurotransmitter release (ACh), and sodium entry at the postsynaptic membrane, generating an endplate potential." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
27 | 11 | The resting membrane potential of the nerve is -70mV. Increased permeability of which ion is responsible for the RMP? A. Calcium ions B. Na+ C. K+ D. Cl- | 31 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 19 Reference Text: "Chloride ions contribute to the resting membrane potential by stabilizing it through their permeability and maintaining the balance of ionic charges." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page Number: 31 Reference Text: "While K⁺ primarily sets the resting potential, Cl⁻ ions help stabilize it through their electrochemical gradient, which is close to the resting potential of -70 mV." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
28 | 12 | Functioning of thyroid involves transport of iodine from blood to thyroid follicle. Iodine transported from follicle to colloid? Which pump or channel is for transport of iodine from follicle to colloid? A. Sodium iodine symporter B. Calmodulin C. Claudin D. Pendrin | 73 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module: Module 133 Reference Text: "Pendrin, also known as SLC26A4, is responsible for the efflux of iodide from the thyroid follicular cell into the colloid where it participates in the synthesis of thyroid hormones." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page: Page 542 Reference Text: "Pendrin (SLC26A4) mediates the transport of iodine from thyroid follicular cells into the colloid for hormone synthesis." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
29 | 13 | Compensation in metabolic acidosis happens late in kidney because? A. Initially the pH of tubular fluid increases B. Low pH normally decreases bicarbonate excretion C. It takes hours to days for kidney to synthesize enzymes that produce NH4+ D. Other ions in the tubule interfere with buffer action | 38 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 17 Reference Text: "In chronic acidosis, there is an adaptive increase in NH3 synthesis in the cells of the proximal tubule. This involves a decrease in intracellular pH, which induces the synthesis of enzymes involved in glutamine metabolism. The process requires hours to days to upregulate these enzymes and augment H+ excretion as NH4+." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page: Page 38 Reference Text: "Chronic metabolic acidosis leads to increased NH3 production as a compensatory mechanism in the kidney. However, this process is delayed because it involves enzyme induction and metabolic adaptation." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
30 | 14 |  | Patient presented with alcoholic gait, abnormal eye movements (nystagmus) after RTA. which lobe of cerebellum likely affected? A. Dentate nucleus B. Flocculonodular lobe C. Anterior lobe D. Interposed nucleus | 15 | Reference 1: Physiology Q Bank Module Number: Module 12 Reference Text: "The flocculonodular lobe (vestibulocerebellum) is responsible for equilibrium and coordination of eye movements. Lesions here often result in truncal ataxia and nystagmus." Reference 2: Physiology Notes Page: Page 15 Reference Text: "Vestibulocerebellum, located in the flocculonodular lobe, primarily manages equilibrium and vestibulo-ocular reflexes. Damage to this area leads to instability in stance and gait, along with eye movement abnormalities such as nystagmus." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
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32 | Subject | Session | Question No. | Image: | Question: | Correct Option. | Page No. | Reference | |||||||||||||||||||
33 | A | B | C | D | |||||||||||||||||||||||
34 | BIOCHEMISTRY | Session 1 | 1 | A patient diagnosed with rare homozygous recessive condition presented with ectopia lentis. In peripheral smear, there was no megaloblastic anemia. Later, was found to have methionine deficiency. Which of the following supplementation will help the patient? A. Thiamine B. Biotin C. Riboflavin D. Pyridoxine | 18 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 137 Reference Text: "Pyridoxine deficiency is associated with defects in metabolism, and supplementation is crucial for conditions like methionine deficiency and homocystinuria." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: Page 19 Reference Text: "Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine): Deficiency manifests in conditions affecting transamination and homocysteine metabolism, leading to methionine deficiency and associated symptoms." | |||||||||||||||||||||
35 | 2 | A young female comes to the emergency department after ingesting 10 tablets of Phenobarbital. Which of the electron transport chain is prevented by this drug? A. Succinate - Fe B. Cytochrome 1-2 C. Complex 1 to Q D. Complex IV | 8 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module Number: Module 138 Reference Text: "Phenobarbital acts as an inhibitor of Complex I (NADH-CoQ reductase), preventing the transfer of electrons from Complex I to CoQ, thereby interrupting the electron transport chain." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: Page 8 Reference Text: "Complex I inhibitors, including barbiturates like Phenobarbital, disrupt electron flow from NADH to ubiquinone (CoQ), hindering ATP production through oxidative phosphorylation." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
36 | 3 | A 3 year old child is brought to the OPD with complaints persistent delayed developmental milestones, macular lesions on the body, hyperpigmented which are more pronounced on exposure to sunlight. What is the error in DNA repair? A. Base excision repair B. Nucleotide excision repair C. DNA mismatch repair D. Homologous recombination | 12 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module Number: Module 10 Reference Text: "The child is suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum, a disorder where thymine dimers caused by UV exposure are not repaired due to a defect in the nucleotide excision repair pathway. This condition does not affect base excision repair, mismatch repair, or homologous recombination." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: Page 12 Reference Text: "Xeroderma pigmentosum results from defective nucleotide excision repair, particularly in removing thymine dimers caused by UV light. Patients present with photosensitivity, hyperpigmentation, and a predisposition to skin cancers." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
37 | 4 |  | Which food item among this the primary source of thiamine in Indians? A. Chapati and rice B. Cucumbers and onions C. Curd D. Vegetable curry | 19 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 10 Reference Text: "Thiamine is primarily obtained from cereals such as rice and wheat, commonly consumed as chapati and boiled rice in the Indian diet. Polished rice, however, may lack thiamine due to the removal of its outer layers during processing." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 19 Reference Text: "Primary sources of thiamine (Vitamin B1) include whole grains like wheat and rice, staples in the Indian diet. Deficiency is more likely with highly polished rice diets lacking parboiling practices." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
38 | 5 | A neonate was brought with features of lethary, poor oral intake. On examination, cataract was seen. Urine Benedict's test was positive, but negative for Glucose. What is the enzyme deficient in this condition? A. Hexokinase B. Galactosyl-1 uridyl phosphatase C. Galactokinase? D. Phosphofructokinase | Skip | ||||||||||||||||||||||||
39 | 6 |  | A female presented with choreo-athetoid movements, dysarthria and dystonia with following findings observed. Which of the following is THE BEST investigation to confirm the same? A. Serum ceruloplasmin B. Urine copper excretion C. Hepatic parenchymal copper estimation D. MRI | 35 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 18 Reference Text: "Hepatic copper content estimation via liver biopsy is the gold standard diagnostic test for Wilson's disease. A copper level greater than 250 mcg/g dry weight confirms the diagnosis." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 35 Reference Text: "Wilson’s disease diagnosis is confirmed with liver biopsy, measuring hepatic copper content (>250 mcg/g dry weight). This is the most definitive investigation." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
40 | 7 |  | A patient has a peripheral smear showing crumpled cells and pancytopenia. In which condition is this seen in? A. Glucocerebosidase B. Galactocerebosidase C. Sphingomyelinase D. Alpha glucosidase | 47 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 22 Reference Text: "Gaucher disease, caused by glucocerebrosidase deficiency, leads to accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages (Gaucher cells) with a 'crumpled tissue paper' appearance in bone marrow. This results in pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 47 Reference Text: "Crumpled tissue paper-like cells, known as Gaucher cells, are characteristic of glucocerebrosidase deficiency (Gaucher disease). Common findings include pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
41 | 8 | A 10-year-old child from a southern Indian state, hailing from a poor family presents with symptoms of rough and scaly skin. The child's diet hardly has any vegetables, fruits. (Follicular maturation?) After treatment with linseed oil, Vitamin A and B, the symptoms subside. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Phrynoderma B. Lichen planus C. Erythroderma D. Keratosis pilaris | 22 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 15 Reference Text: "Phrynoderma, or 'toad skin,' is associated with deficiencies in Vitamin A and B complex. It presents with rough, scaly papules, particularly on extensor surfaces, and responds well to vitamin supplementation, including linseed oil." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 22 Reference Text: "Phrynoderma is a form of follicular hyperkeratosis caused by severe malnutrition, particularly deficiencies of Vitamin A and B. Clinical improvement is seen with dietary correction and supplementation with vitamins and linseed oil." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
42 | 9 | At the age of 12 a boy presented with fingernail abrasions, excessive biting of lips. He also had intellectual disability? What is the diagnosis? A. Lesch Nyhan syndrome B. Hurler syndrome C. Hunter syndrome D. Von Gierke syndrome | 35 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 18 Reference Text: "Lesch Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder due to HGPRT deficiency. It manifests with self-mutilation behaviors like lip and nail biting, intellectual disability, and hyperuricemia." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 35 Reference Text: "Lesch Nyhan syndrome presents with intellectual disability, self-injurious behaviors (nail biting and lip chewing), and hyperuricemia due to a complete deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
43 | 10 | A patient presented with severe abdominal pain, vomiting and loss of appetite. His serum triglycerides was >2000 mg/dl. Which apolipoprotein is deficient? A. Apolipoprotein C II B. Apolipoprotein B48 C. Apolipoprotein B100 D. Apolipoprotein AI | 29 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 77 Reference Text: "Hyperlipoproteinemia Type I is caused by a deficiency of Apolipoprotein C-II, an essential cofactor for lipoprotein lipase. This results in elevated serum triglycerides (>2000 mg/dl), leading to complications like acute pancreatitis." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 29 Reference Text: "Apolipoprotein C-II deficiency leads to impaired activation of lipoprotein lipase, causing marked hypertriglyceridemia, which manifests clinically as recurrent abdominal pain and pancreatitis." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
44 | 11 | A patient with a family history of Coronary artery disease presented with tendon xanthomas. Serum LDL high and Cholesterol are elevated. What is the defect? A. LDL metabolism B. VLDL metabolism C. LDL receptor defect D. Lipoprotein lipase deficiency | 45 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 9 Reference Text: "Familial hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa) results from a defect in the LDL receptor. This condition is associated with elevated LDL cholesterol, tendon xanthomas, and a strong family history of coronary artery disease." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 45 Reference Text: "LDL receptor defects in familial hypercholesterolemia lead to increased serum cholesterol and LDL levels, presenting clinically as tendon xanthomas and an elevated risk for coronary artery disease." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
45 | 12 |  | You receive a text message from your friend JOHN DOE about occupational exposure after he visited his doctor What is this test used to diagnose? WhatsApp message box with urine corporphyrin- A. Lead poisoning B. Anthracosis C. Silicosis D. Asbestosis | 60 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 16 Reference Text: "Urinary coproporphyrin is elevated in chronic lead poisoning, a reliable marker for diagnostic confirmation. The condition also presents with basophilic stippling and Burtonian lines on gums." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 60 Reference Text: "Lead poisoning disrupts heme synthesis, increasing urinary coproporphyrin levels. This biochemical marker is used for the diagnosis of lead exposure." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
46 | 13 | A patient was advised daily exercise to control his diabetes mellitus Type II. What is the glucose transporter expressed when the patient start exercise? A. GLUT 1 B. GLUT 2 C. GLUT 3 D. GLUT 4 | 16 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 77 Reference Text: "GLUT 4 is the only insulin-dependent glucose transporter that becomes active during exercise, facilitating glucose uptake into skeletal muscles and adipose tissue." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 16 Reference Text: "GLUT 4 is expressed in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue and is insulin-dependent. It facilitates glucose uptake during exercise and postprandial states." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
47 | 14 | A patient with severe abdominal pain. His Serum amylase and lipase elevated. On imaging there is stone in common bile duct. Which enzyme is elevated in this condition? A. ALT B. LDH C. GGT D. CPK | 48 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 18 Reference Text: "Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) is a sensitive marker elevated in conditions involving biliary obstruction, such as stones in the common bile duct. GGT levels rise in response to cholestasis or biliary tract involvement." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 48 Reference Text: "Biliary obstruction due to common bile duct stones leads to increased levels of GGT. This enzyme is particularly useful in differentiating hepatic versus biliary causes of jaundice." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
48 | 15 | Which of the following is used for syndromic diagnosis of infected cases like meningitis? A. Nested PCR B. Multiplex PCR C. Reverse transcriptase PCR D. Twice PCR was amplified | 56 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 30 Reference Text: "Multiplex PCR is a highly efficient technique that allows simultaneous detection of multiple pathogens from a single clinical specimen. It is widely used for syndromic diagnosis of infections such as meningitis." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 56 Reference Text: "Syndromic diagnosis for infections like meningitis relies on advanced techniques such as multiplex PCR, which enables the detection of multiple pathogens concurrently, saving time and improving diagnostic accuracy." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
49 | 16 | A patient who underwent gastrectomy for adenocarcinoma which of the following vitamin need to be supplemented in this patient? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin A | 47 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 16 Reference Text: "Vitamin B12 deficiency is common after gastrectomy due to the loss of intrinsic factor production by gastric parietal cells. Intrinsic factor is essential for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum. Supplementation with Vitamin B12 is necessary to prevent megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 47 Reference Text: "Following gastrectomy, patients frequently develop Vitamin B12 deficiency because of impaired intrinsic factor production. Vitamin B12 supplementation is recommended as a preventive measure to avoid megaloblastic anemia and neuropathy." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
50 | 17 | A patient with history of binge alcohol intake presented with altered sensorium and plasma glucose 45 mg/dl. What is the treatment needed? A. Thiamine only B. 25% Dextrose C. Thiamine followed by Dextrose D. ? | 47 | Reference: Biochemistry Q Bank Module (Module): 16 Reference Text: "Vitamin B12 deficiency is common after gastrectomy due to the loss of intrinsic factor production by gastric parietal cells. Intrinsic factor is essential for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum. Supplementation with Vitamin B12 is necessary to prevent megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page: 47 Reference Text: "Following gastrectomy, patients frequently develop Vitamin B12 deficiency because of impaired intrinsic factor production. Vitamin B12 supplementation is recommended as a preventive measure to avoid megaloblastic anemia and neuropathy." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
51 | Session 2 | 18 |  | In the given lineweaver burk plot, red arrow shows normal enzyme action and green arrow shows the action of inhibitor. What is the type of inhibition? A. Allosteric inhibition B. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition D. Noncompetitive inhibition | 7 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 61 Reference Text: "Competitive inhibition: The inhibitor closely resembles the real substrate and competes to bind at the active site. It increases the apparent Km without affecting Vmax." "Km value increased, Vmax remains unchanged. Examples include malonate inhibiting succinate dehydrogenase." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 7 Reference Text: "Competitive vs Noncompetitive vs Uncompetitive inhibition of enzymes: Competitive inhibitors increase Km without affecting Vmax. Noncompetitive inhibitors decrease Vmax without affecting Km. Uncompetitive inhibitors decrease both Km and Vmax." | |||||||||||||||||||||
52 | 19 | A child presented with recurrent abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea following ingestion of milk-based product. Which enzyme is likely to be deficient? A. Lactase B. Maltase C. Amylase D. Lipase | 54 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 137 Reference Text: "Lactase deficiency (hypolactasia) is the inability to digest lactose found in milk. It manifests as abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, and vomiting after consuming milk-based products." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 54 Reference Text: "Lactose intolerance: Causes diarrhea, abdominal pain, and bloating. Characterized by acidic stools and symptoms upon milk ingestion, due to lactase enzyme deficiency in the gastrointestinal system." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
53 | 20 |  | Which micronutrient is deficient in this patient with the radiographic image given below in a patient with neutropenia, depigmented hair and nails? A. Iron B. Copper C. Zinc D. Fluoride | 54 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 61 Reference Text: "Copper deficiency is characterized by neutropenia and depigmented hair due to disrupted cytochrome c oxidase activity. It is linked to dietary inadequacies or malabsorption disorders." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 54 Reference Text: "Copper: Essential micronutrient with deficiency signs including depigmented hair, brittle nails, and neutropenia. Common in conditions like Menkes disease or due to malabsorption." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
54 | 21 | A child was suffering from phenylketonuria. Necessary dietary control was done the but neurological symptoms persisted. Serum shows normal levels of phenylalanine. Which of the following enzyme is likely to be deficient in this condition? A. DOPA decarboxylase B. Tyrosine hydroxylase C. Tetrahydrobiopterine synthase D. Phenylalanine hydroxylase | 18 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 137 Reference Text: "Type V PKU arises due to a deficiency in dihydrobiopterin synthase, which impacts the biosynthesis of tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4), a cofactor essential for phenylalanine hydroxylase and neurotransmitter synthesis." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 18 Reference Text: "PKU variants Type IV and V involve deficiencies in tetrahydrobiopterin-related enzymes, leading to persistent neurological symptoms despite dietary control of phenylalanine. BH4 is crucial for enzymatic activity of phenylalanine hydroxylase." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
55 | 22 | Child presented with fatigue and muscle weakness on exercising. Laboratory investigations found that LCFA oxidation was affected. Muscle biopsy revealed the presence of fat vacuoles. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Carnitine deficiency B. FA synthase deficiency C. LPL defect D. LDL defect | 23 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 61 Reference Text: "Carnitine deficiency disrupts fatty acid transport into mitochondria, impairing beta-oxidation. Clinical features include muscle weakness, exercise intolerance, and fat vacuoles observed in muscle biopsy." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 23 Reference Text: "Fatty acid oxidation defects, such as carnitine deficiency, result in reduced long-chain fatty acid metabolism. Manifestations include muscle fatigue, weakness during exertion, and characteristic fat vacuoles in biopsy." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
56 | 23 | A patient presented with multiple yellowish raised spots on eyelids, xanthomas on achilles tendon. What is the likely cause for the patient's presentation? A. Tangiers disease B. Familial hypercholesteremia C. Fabry disease D. Xanthamatosis | 15 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 129 Reference Text: "Familial hypercholesterolemia: Autosomal dominant disorder characterized by elevated LDL cholesterol levels. Clinical features include xanthomas (e.g., Achilles tendon) and xanthelasma (yellowish plaques on eyelids)." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 15 Reference Text: "Familial hypercholesterolemia presents with tendon xanthomas and xanthelasma due to defective LDL receptor function, leading to excessive LDL cholesterol levels." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
57 | 24 |  | 3 month old child presented with hypotonia, floppiness, hypotonia, difficulty feeding and failure to thrive, macroglossia. O/E hepatomegaly was seen. Weight: 2.8 kg, length: 48 cm? What's the diagnosis? A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Transposition of Great Arteries C. Von Gierke disease D. Pompe's Disease | 21 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 129 Reference Text: "Pompe's Disease, a glycogen storage disorder, is caused by acid alpha-glucosidase deficiency. Key symptoms include hypotonia, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, feeding difficulties, and failure to thrive in infants." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 21 Reference Text: "Pompe disease, due to acid maltase deficiency, presents with infantile hypotonia, floppiness, hepatomegaly, macroglossia, and progressive feeding difficulties. Often identified in the first months of life." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
58 | 25 | A 32 year old middle lady comes with the complaints of erythematous scaly rash, loose stools and cognitive dysfunction. The rash involved her forearm, neck and face. She seems to have difficulty in remembering things from the recent past. Her electrolytes are within normal range. She admits to having shifted to a corn based diet due to economical reasons. Which of the following would improve her symptoms? A. Oral Nicotinamide supplementation B. High dose of IV thiamine C. High Dose Vit C D. Stop corn diet | 19 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 119 Reference Text: "Pellagra results from niacin deficiency, common in maize-consuming populations. Symptoms include dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Oral nicotinamide supplementation (300 mg daily) corrects the deficiency." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 19 Reference Text: "Niacin deficiency presents with the triad of dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Dietary correction and nicotinamide supplements rapidly improve symptoms." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
59 | 26 | A female with hb-7.2g/dl, MCV low, MCHC-low, suffering from iron deficiency anemia. TIBC- increased. What is her transferrin saturation? A. Increased B. Reduced C. Equivocal D. Normal | 37 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 129 Reference Text: "Iron deficiency anemia is marked by reduced transferrin saturation, which is often below 15%, due to an increase in total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and decreased serum iron levels." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 37 Reference Text: "In iron deficiency anemia, transferrin saturation is significantly reduced as serum iron decreases and TIBC increases. This change in saturation is a hallmark diagnostic feature." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
60 | 27 | Mother came back home to see her child suffering from difficulty breathing. The child had contact with rotenone while trying to bath their pet. She was taken to the emergency department. What is the likely cause of her death? A. Cytochrome c reductase inhibition B. Succinate dehydrogenase inhibition C. NADH ubiquinone reductase inhibition D. Cytochrome oxidase inhibition | 8 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 61 Reference Text: "Rotenone inhibits complex I (NADH ubiquinone reductase) of the electron transport chain. This blocks the transfer of electrons from NADH to coenzyme Q, leading to reduced ATP production and cellular hypoxia." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 8 Reference Text: "Complex I inhibitors include rotenone, which impairs the NADH to ubiquinone electron transfer. This results in disruption of ATP synthesis and is associated with poisoning symptoms such as difficulty breathing and neurological dysfunction." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
61 | 28 | A patient of hypertriglyceredemia was started on medication. He then developed flushing, hyperglycemia and elevated liver enzymes. Identify the drug? A. Rosuvastatin B. Ezetemibe C. Nicotinamide D. Fenofibrate | 46 | Reference 1: Biochemistry Q Bank Module: Module 119 Reference Text: "Nicotinamide supplementation, commonly used in hypertriglyceridemia management, is associated with side effects like flushing, hyperglycemia, and elevated liver enzymes." Reference 2: Biochemistry Notes Page Number: 46 Reference Text: "Nicotinamide, a potent HDL enhancer, frequently causes flushing, hyperglycemia, and hepatotoxicity as side effects in lipid-lowering therapy." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
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63 | Subject | Session | Question No. | Image: | Question: | Correct Option. | Page No. | Reference | |||||||||||||||||||
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65 | PATHOLOGY | Session 1 | 1 |  | Which of the following is most common mutation associated with the microscopy image of thyroid shown? A. RET mutation B. MET C. BRAF V600E D. KRAS | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||
66 | 2 |  | A patient with vomiting and diarrhoea, ass with skin eruptions, with similar episodes in this fast. After switching to GLUTEN FREE diet his symptoms resolved. What is the enzyme defect? A. Anti tissue transglutaminase antibody B. ANCA C. ASCA D. Anti-parietal Ab | 62 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module Number: Module 137 Reference Text: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are specifically elevated in celiac disease, which is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and malabsorption, often resolving upon adopting a gluten-free diet. Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 62 Reference Text: Celiac disease is strongly associated with the presence of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies, which play a crucial role in the diagnosis and monitoring of the disease. | ||||||||||||||||||||||
67 | 3 | Patient of COPD presented with ARDS symptoms. What is the role of IL-8 in inflammation? A. Endothelial activation B. Recuritment of neutrophils C. Macrophage activation D. Promote surfactant production | 22 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module Number: Module 137 Reference Text: IL-8 is a potent chemoattractant and is specifically known for recruiting neutrophils to sites of inflammation. Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 22 Reference Text: IL-8 plays a crucial role in inflammation by promoting neutrophil recruitment, which is critical in acute inflammatory responses like ARDS. | |||||||||||||||||||||||
68 | 4 |  | 12 year old with cervical lymphadenopathy, surface antigen +, CD 10+, CD 19+, CD 20+ CD 3- (? CD 5, 15 more CD markers) A. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma B. Burkitt’s Lymphoma C. ALL D. Mantle cell lymphoma | 48 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module Number: Module 137 Reference Text: Burkitt’s lymphoma shows B-cell markers such as CD10, CD19, and CD20, often with high proliferation rates and association with Epstein-Barr virus. This disease frequently presents with lymphadenopathy in pediatric cases. Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 48 Reference Text: CD10+, CD19+, and CD20+ are characteristic markers for Burkitt’s lymphoma. The rapid progression of cervical lymphadenopathy and systemic involvement are hallmark features of this aggressive lymphoma. | ||||||||||||||||||||||
69 | 5 |  | A 55 yr old chronic smoker presents with weight loss, hemoptysis and TTF-1 positive. What is the possible diagnosis? A. Squamous cell ca B. Adenoma ca C. Small cell ca D. Large cell ca | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
70 | 6 |  | Pedigree chart with only female carriers and only males affected? A. Wiskott - aldrich B. Prader willi C. Wilson disease D. Achondroplasia | 27 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 48 Reference Text: "Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the WASP gene. Male patients are affected, while females are asymptomatic carriers, commonly seen in X-linked pedigree charts." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: 26 Reference Text: "Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome: A triad of eczema, thrombocytopenia, and immune deficiency due to WASP gene mutation. X-linked recessive pattern with affected males and female carriers." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
71 | 7 |  | 2 day old child is brought to the OPD. mother complains that child is not feeding well and has bilious vomiting. The child is diagnosed with congenital megacolon and aganglionic segment of the colon is shown. Which of the following layers are affected in this condition? A. Layer 1 and 2 B. Layer 2 and 3 C. Layer 3 and 4 D. Layer 1 and 4 | 34 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 137 Reference Text: "Hirschsprung disease is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal (Meissner) and myenteric (Auerbach) plexuses, affecting layers 2 (submucosa) and 3 (muscularis propria)." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 94 Reference Text: "Congenital megacolon involves failure of migration of neural crest cells, resulting in an aganglionic segment with absent submucosal and myenteric plexuses in layers 2 and 3." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
72 | 8 | Identify the disease with the chromosomal abnormality? A. Prader Willi syndrome B. Angelman syndrome C. Cri-du Chat syndrome D. Rett syndrome | 34 | Subject: Pathology Page Number: 34 Referred Line: "Prader-Willi: 70% deletion from paternal chromosome 15q11-q13, Angelman: 70% deletion from maternal chromosome 15q11-q13". Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 176 Reference Text: "Cri-du-chat (cat's cry) syndrome, also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing. Infants with this condition often have a high-pitched cry that sounds like that of a cat." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: 12 Reference Text: "Cri-du-Chat syndrome, also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, results from a deletion on chromosome 5 and is characterized by a high-pitched cat-like cry." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
73 | 9 | A COPD patient with history of smoking present with ? respiratory symptoms. Chest radiograph showed pan acinar emphysema. Which of the enzyme deficiency is associated with this condition? A. Alpha 1 anti trypsin B. Elastase C. Chymotrypsin D. Type 2 surfactant | 40 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 12 Reference Text: "𝜶1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with Panacinar emphysema." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 40 Reference Text: "Panacinar emphysema—affects respiratory bronchioles and alveoli, frequently in lower lobes. Associated with α1-antitrypsin deficiency." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
74 | 10 |  | Smoker with hoarseness and cough. Direct laryngoscopy was done which showed the followed lesion. What is the stain used for the diagnosis? A. Silver nitrate stain B. Supravital stain C. H&E stain D. Congo red stain | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
75 | 11 | Which of the following is not true about vWD? A. vWD type 1 is the most severe disease in children B. vWD type 2 is associated with moderate bleeding tendency C. vWD type 3 is the most severe disease in children D. vWD type 3 has severely low levels of VWF | 41 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "vWD type 1 is autosomal dominant and mild; it forms about 75% of cases. vWD type 3 is autosomal recessive and represents the severe phenotype." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 41 Reference Text: "Von Willebrand disease type 1 is mild and most common. Type 3, being autosomal recessive, is rare but the most severe variant in children." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
76 | 12 |  | A 34 year old female presented with low Hb, platelet count of 25000/mm3, raised PT and aPTT. Peripheral smear is given. Which of the following fusion gene is affected? A. PML RARA B. RUNX1 RUNX1T1 C. IGH NSD2 D. BCR ABL | 42 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (AML M3 subtype) is associated with the PML RARA fusion gene. Clinical features often include low hemoglobin, thrombocytopenia, and coagulopathy, with raised PT and aPTT levels." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 42 Reference Text: "PML RARA fusion gene is specific for AML-M3 subtype, characterized by disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and bleeding tendencies." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
77 | 13 | A patient presented with abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly, WBC>50,000/mm3. Which of the following genes is involved in this case? A. t(9:22) B. Del 1q C. t(15:17) D. Del 3q | 43 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 48 Reference Text: "The given scenario points toward the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), which is due to reciprocal translocation of 9 and 22 (Philadelphia chromosome)." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 43 Reference Text: "CML is associated with the BCR-ABL fusion gene resulting from t(9;22) translocation, characterized by leukocytosis, hepatosplenomegaly, and elevated WBC counts." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
78 | 14 |  | Short girl, with primary amenorrhea, not attained puberty yet? Identify chromosomal defect: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. AIS D. ? | 19 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Turner syndrome is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and primary amenorrhea due to the absence of one X chromosome (45 XO karyotype)." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 19 Reference Text: "Short stature with primary amenorrhea and delayed puberty in a female suggests Turner syndrome (45 XO). Associated features include webbed neck and widely spaced nipples." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
79 | 15 |  | 27 year old footballer collapsed on the field and could not be revived. Autopsy was conducted and on cardiac biopsy the left ventricle was hypertrophied. Identify the possible cause for the same? A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive cardiomyopathy D. Restricted cardiomyopathy | 43 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by left ventricular hypertrophy, often leading to sudden cardiac death in young athletes due to arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 43 Reference Text: "HCM frequently causes sudden death in athletes. Key findings include left ventricular hypertrophy and impaired diastolic function." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
80 | 16 |  | Patient with flank plain (?) hematuria. Histology image shown. Identify the condition. A. Chromophobe RCC B. Clearcell carcinoma C. Metastasis D. Papillary cell ca | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
81 | 17 | A thalassemia patient has received multiple blood transfusions. Aplastic crisis can occur in this patient due to infection from? A. Epstein barr virus B. Parvovirus b19 C. CMV D. HSV | 48 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Clinical scenario indicates transient aplastic crisis which can be caused by Parvovirus B19." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 48 Reference Text: "Parvovirus B19 infection leads to transient aplastic crisis in individuals with chronic hemolytic disorders such as thalassemia or hereditary spherocytosis." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
82 | 18 |  | A child presents to you with bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. A trephine biopsy aspirate shows the following finding. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme deficient in this patient? A. Glucocerebosidase B. Galactocerebosidase C. Sphingomyelinase D. Alpha glucosidase | 45 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Gaucher’s disease is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase. Clinical features include bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia. Histological findings show cells with a crumpled tissue paper-like cytoplasm." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page: Page 45 Reference Text: "Gaucher’s disease presents with hepatosplenomegaly, bone pain, and cytopenia. The underlying defect is in the glucocerebrosidase enzyme, leading to accumulation of glucocerebroside in macrophages." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
83 | 19 | A 3 year old child is brought to the OPD with complaints persistent delayed developed milestones, macular lesions on the body, hyperpigmented which are more pronounced on exposure to sunlight. What is the error in DNA multiplication? A. Base excision repair B. Nucleotide excision repair C. DNA mismatch repair D. Homologous recombination | 18 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Nucleotide excision repair is crucial in resolving thymine dimers caused by UV radiation. Its defect leads to conditions like Xeroderma Pigmentosum, characterized by photosensitivity, hyperpigmentation, and delayed milestones." Reference 1: Pathology Notes Page: Page 18 Reference Text: "Cockayne Syndrome and Xeroderma Pigmentosum result from defects in nucleotide excision repair mechanisms. Clinical features include delayed milestones, photosensitivity, and hyperpigmentation." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
84 | Session 2 | 20 | A couple comes for the prenatal genetic counselling. They have a family history of Hemophilia. The have a male child with Hemophilia and a normal female child. The mother’s family has Hemophilia and the father’s family is normal. What are the chances of their offsprings being affected? A. Half of the males can be affected and half of the females can be carriers B. All males will be affected and all females will be normal C. All males will be affected and half of the females will be carriers D. All of males and females will be affected | 50 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. A female carrier has a 50% chance of passing the defective gene to her sons (affected) and a 50% chance of passing the carrier gene to her daughters." Reference 1: Pathology Notes Page: Page 50 Reference Text: "In X-linked recessive inheritance, affected males inherit the defective gene from their mothers. Female carriers have a 50% chance of producing an affected male and a 50% chance of producing a carrier female." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
85 | 21 |  | A 10 year old boy comes with fever and pain in his right upper limb. He has an expansile lesion in his right radius in the diaphysis. Histopathology of the lesion is shown below. What is the most accurate test among the following? A. t15;17(q22 11-12) B. RB mutation C. T11:22 (q24,q12) D. EWSR1 (FUS- ETS fusion gene) | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
86 | 22 | A 38 year old woman came with the complaints of weakness and lethargy and heavy menstrual bleeding. Her peripheral blood picture showed small RBCs and pallor. Her Hemoglobin was 7.9mg/dl. Her MCV- low, TIBC - high, serum Transferrin saturation - low. (ADD values and normal range). What is the diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency Anemia B. Hemolytic Anemia C. Hypoplastic Anemia D. Megaloblastic Anemia | 38 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Iron deficiency anemia is associated with low hemoglobin, low MCV, low serum transferrin saturation, and elevated TIBC. These findings, combined with symptoms of weakness, lethargy, and heavy menstrual bleeding, are consistent with this diagnosis." Reference 1: Pathology Notes Page: Page 38 Reference Text: "Microcytic anemia characterized by low serum iron, low ferritin, high TIBC, and low transferrin saturation is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia, often seen with chronic blood loss or nutritional deficiency." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
87 | 23 | A 28 year old woman P1L1, came with complaints of weakness and genaralised fatigue. The peripheral blood picture showed Microcytic Hypochromic anemia. Her serum iron was low and she had increased RDW. her MCV and MCH were also low and TIBC was high. What would her serum transferrin saturation be? A. Increased B. Reduced C. Equivocal D. Cannot be determined | 38 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Iron deficiency anemia presents with microcytic hypochromic RBCs, low serum iron, high TIBC, and reduced transferrin saturation, indicating a decrease in iron availability." Reference 1: Pathology Notes Page: Page 38 Reference Text: "In iron deficiency anemia, transferrin saturation is low due to a decrease in iron stores, despite elevated TIBC." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
88 | 24 | Which of the following is incorrect about iron metabolism? A. Iron is transported by binding with apoferritin B. Serum ferritin denotes the iron levels in the body C. Iron is stored in the body in the form of ferritin D. Free serum iron is toxic to cells | 45 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Iron in the blood is transported bound to transferrin, not apoferritin. Apoferritin stores iron intracellularly in the form of ferritin." Reference 1: Pathology Notes Page: Page 45 Reference Text: "Serum ferritin reflects iron storage levels, while transferrin binds and transports iron in the blood. Free iron is toxic to cells due to its oxidative potential." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
89 | 25 | Which protein accumulation is seen in Alzheimer’s disease? A. Alpha Synuclein B. Beta amyloid C. GFAP D. Albumin | 35 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module: Module 141 Reference Text: "Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the deposition of beta-amyloid plaques extracellularly, which are derived from the enzymatic cleavage of amyloid precursor protein." Reference 1: Pathology Notes Page: Page 35 Reference Text: "The hallmark of Alzheimer's pathology includes beta-amyloid plaque deposition and tau protein neurofibrillary tangles, primarily affecting the hippocampus and cortical regions." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
90 | 26 |  | A 45 year old woman came with the complaints of fever, night sweats, generalised itching and unintentional weight loss of 10% in the last 3 months. On examination she has enlarged cervical and axillary lymph nodes. The lymph node examination and biopsy showed the following picture. What would the likely diagnosis and treatment option be? A. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma - ABVD regimen B. Non Hodgkin’s Lymphoma - Rituximab monotherapy C. Non Hodgkin’s Lymphoma - Poor prognosis due to advanced stage - treated with radiotherapy D. Sarcoidosis - Started on Prednisolone 40 mg/day | 43 | Reference 1: Pathology Q Bank Module Number: Module 137 Reference Text: "Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. Treatment involves the ABVD regimen consisting of Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, and Dacarbazine." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: Page 43 Reference Text: "Hodgkin's Lymphoma presents with B symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Reed-Sternberg cells are pathognomonic, and the standard therapy is the ABVD regimen." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
91 | 27 |  | A 45 year old man came with complaints of tearing chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension with negative Trop I and T. the wall of the aorta was biopsied and the image is shown below. What is the most likely pathology behind it? A. Connective tissue damage of the aortic wall B. Fibrinoid necrosis and smooth muscle hyperplasia C. Fat deposition and smooth muscle degeneration D. Immune complex vasculitis | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
92 | 28 | A 53 year old woman came with complains of fatigue, icterus, anasarca and had hepatosplenomegaly. She had anemia, neutropenia. Her Bone marrow examination showed 22% plasma cells and acellular eosinophilic deposits. The bone marrow biopsy is shown below. What is the associated pathology? A. Bone marrow - coagulative necrosis B. Bone marrow - fibrinoid necrosis C. Amyloidosis D. Myxonatous degeneration of the bone marrow | 12 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 133] Reference Text: "Amyloidosis involves deposition of acellular eosinophilic material, confirmed by Congo red stain demonstrating apple-green birefringence under polarized light." This matches the described bone marrow findings of eosinophilic deposits. Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 12 Reference Text: "Amyloidosis commonly affects organs like the spleen, liver, and bone marrow leading to systemic manifestations such as hepatosplenomegaly and anemia." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
93 | 29 |  | A 72 year old man came with generalised anascarca and icterus. He had hepatosplenomegaly. Kidney function was found to be deranged and his urine gammaglobulins were more than 3gm/dl. Electrophoresis of the urine protein is shown below. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Monoclonal gammopathy of Undifferentiated Proteins B. Multiple Myeloma - IgG C. Multiple Myeloma - IgA D. Multiple Myeloma - IgM | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
94 | 30 |  | A 38 year old woman came with the complaints of slowly growing breast lump for the last 6 months. She had history of similar lump for which excisison was done and medical and mammographic reports are not available. On examination she lump was smooth, well defined, mobile and regular margins. The Cytology and biopsy of the same was taken and is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Fibroadenoma B. Sclerosing adenosis C. Phyllodes tumor D. Leiomyosarcoma | 25 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 137] Reference Text: "Phyllodes tumor presents as a smooth, well-defined, and mobile breast lump with features overlapping fibroadenoma. Histologically, the presence of stromal overgrowth and cleft-like spaces lined by epithelium differentiates it from fibroadenoma." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 25 Reference Text: "Phyllodes tumor, although rare, can mimic fibroadenoma in clinical presentation but is differentiated on biopsy by stromal cellularity and overgrowth. Recurrence is common after simple excision." | ||||||||||||||||||||||
95 | 31 |  | A patient died from myocardial infarction. Following his death an autopsy conducted and biopsy taken from his cardiac tissue is as given. What is the number of days since the injury based on the findings mentioned? A. 3-4 days B. 7-10 days C. Around 3-4 weeks D. 1 day | Skip | |||||||||||||||||||||||
96 | 32 | A 6 month child presented with leucocoria (cat’s eye reflex) in right eye. A cranial pathology was detected and the lesion is positive for Synaptophysin, NSC, Chromgranin, and shows a palisade in a spoke-and-wheel arrangement, surrounding a central core. Identify the condition. A. Medulloblastoma B. Retinoblastoma C. Pineoblastoma D. Epidermoid carcinoma | 42 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 137] Reference Text: "Retinoblastoma presents with leucocoria, commonly in children under 2 years. Histologically, it shows Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (spoke-and-wheel arrangement with a central lumen) and positivity for neuronal markers like Synaptophysin, NSE, and Chromogranin." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 42 Reference Text: "Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy in children, presenting with leucocoria. Histopathology demonstrates Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes, indicative of neuroblastic origin." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
97 | 33 | A patient presented with arm span more than height, subluxated lens, and pigeon chest appearance. What is the likely protein involved in this condition? A. Collagen B. Fibrillin C. Elastin D. Laminin | 35 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 137] Reference Text: "Marfan syndrome is characterized by features such as an arm span greater than height, lens subluxation, and skeletal abnormalities like pigeon chest. It is caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene encoding fibrillin, a major component of microfibrils in connective tissue." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 35 Reference Text: "Fibrillin is a glycoprotein essential for the structural integrity of connective tissue. Defective fibrillin leads to features of Marfan syndrome, including disproportionate arm span, lens dislocation, and chest deformities." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
98 | 34 | Which among the following statement is true regarding PNH? A. Sucrose lysis test is diagnostic B. Flow cytometry is gold standard for diagnosis C. It is an inherited condition D. Anemia with heart failure is the most common cause of mortality | 29 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 137] Reference Text: "Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) is diagnosed using flow cytometry, the gold standard test, which detects deficiency of CD55 and CD59 on red cells. It is an acquired clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 29 Reference Text: "PNH is an acquired disorder with intravascular hemolysis and thrombosis as key features. Diagnosis is confirmed by flow cytometry demonstrating loss of GPI-anchored proteins such as CD55 and CD59." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
99 | 35 | A child presented with failure to thrive and recurrent infections. On examination, tonsils are absent. Further evaluation confirms deficiency of adenosine deaminase. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome B. SCID C. Ataxia telengeictasia D. Friedrich’s ataxia | 47 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 137] Reference Text: "SCID is a severe immunodeficiency disorder characterized by failure to thrive, recurrent infections, and absent lymphoid tissue such as tonsils. A deficiency of adenosine deaminase (ADA) is a common cause, leading to toxic accumulation of deoxyadenosine, which impairs lymphocyte survival." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 47 Reference Text: "Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is linked to ADA deficiency. It results in impaired T and B lymphocyte function, leading to absent lymphoid organs and recurrent infections in early life." | |||||||||||||||||||||||
100 | 36 |  | A middle aged man came with complaints of dyspnea, chest tightness and dry cough. On imaging he was found to have diffuse interstitial fibrosis. The biopsy of his lung was taken and is shown below. Which of the following industries he has likely been working in for the last 20 years? A. Silica B. Asbestos C. Coal D. Beryllium | 54 | Reference 1: Pathology QBank Module Number: [Module 137] Reference Text: "Asbestos exposure leads to diffuse interstitial fibrosis and characteristic histological findings such as asbestos bodies (ferruginous bodies) seen on lung biopsy. Occupational history often reveals prolonged exposure in industries like construction, shipbuilding, or insulation." Reference 2: Pathology Notes Page Number: 54 Reference Text: "Asbestosis is characterized by interstitial fibrosis, often with pleural plaques and asbestos bodies. It is common in individuals working for prolonged periods in industries involving asbestos handling, such as shipyards and insulation manufacturing." | ||||||||||||||||||||||