Hypertension in Pregnancy
A 34-year-old patient, G1P0, at 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
Background
What is preeclampsia?
New onset hypertension with evidence of �organ failure or utero-placental dysfunction
Background
Systolic BP > 140
or
Diastolic BP > 90
> 20 weeks gestation
< 20 weeks gestation
Organ/utero-placental involvement?
Preeclampsia
Gestational
HTN
Severe HTN
> 160/110 mmHg
YES
NO
Chronic
HTN
Background
Why is preeclampsia an emergency?
It can progress to eclampsia �or HELLP syndrome!
Severe hypertension can also lead to hemorrhagic stroke or placental abruption!
History
34-year-old, G1P0, 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
What do you want to know on history?
Signs of a vascular event (stroke)
History
34-year-old, G1P0, 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
What do you want to know on history?
Exam
34-year-old, G1P0, 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
What should you look for on exam?
Cardio/esp
Abdominal
Neuro
Periphery
General
Investigations
34-year-old, G1P0, 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
What investigations should you order?
Management
34-year-old, G1P0, 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
How should you manage patients?
BP can be medically managed with short-acting or long-acting medications, depending on the situation.
Short-acting
Long-acting
Management
34-year-old, G1P0, 33+0 weeks, presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days.
Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21
How should you manage patients?
Preeclampsia will not resolve until the baby is delivered. Depending on gestational age, you need to decide whether to arrange for immediate delivery or proceed with expectant management.
Diagnosis of preeclampsia
<37 weeks
≥37 weeks
Immediate delivery
Meets indications for delivery?
Expectant management
Immediate delivery
Indications for delivery
Remember: if arranging for preterm induction, order prophylactic penicillin G for GBS, MgSO4 for seizure prophylaxis and fetal neuroprotection, and betamethasone for fetal lung development (if <34w0d)
Prevention
Preeclampsia Prevention
High Risk Factors (Any 1)
Moderate Risk Factors (Any 2)
Note: preeclampsia is also an important risk factor for future development of cardiovascular disease
Practice
CASE 1: A 34-year-old patient, G1P0 at 33w0d presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days. Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21.
�The rest of their history is unremarkable. You send them for a preeclampsia workup, which is also unremarkable.
�How do you manage this patient?
Practice
CASE 1: A 34-year-old patient, G1P0 at 33w0d presents with new onset 3/10 headache x2 days. Vitals: 96 bpm, BP 144/92, 36.8°C, RR 21.
�The rest of their history is unremarkable. You send them for a preeclampsia workup, which is also unremarkable.
�How do you manage this patient?
Practice
CASE 2: A 34-year-old patient (G1P0) presents to assessment at 36w2d complaining of significant nausea and a severe headache. Their vitals are: 85 bpm, 161/94 mmHg, RR 18, 36.7°C, SpO₂ 98%. On history/exam, they have RUQ pain on palpation, hyperreflexia, and report seeing flashing lights. Their lab work is as follows:
CBCdiff
WBC 8.1
Hb 118
MCV 87
RDW 14.9
Plt 322
�Chemistry
ALT 156 (H)
Bilirubin 15
Cr 160 (H)
Urinalysis
Appearance yellow/clear
WBC 0
RBC 0
Protein +1
Ketones 0
pH 7.3
�Urine PCR pending (takes 24h to return)
�
Practice
CASE 2: A 34-year-old patient (G1P0) presents to assessment at 36w2d complaining of significant nausea and a severe headache. Their vitals are: 85 bpm, 161/94 mmHg, RR 18, 36.7°C, SpO₂ 98%. On history/exam, they have RUQ pain on palpation, hyperreflexia, and report seeing flashing lights.
How do you manage this patient?
This patient is presenting with hypertension and evidence of organ damage on symptoms and PEC labs. At 36w2d, the risk of harm to the patient outweighs the risks of preterm delivery.
Practice
CASE 3: 34-year-old patient (G1P0) presents to assessment at 34w6d after being sent over by their OBGYN for very high blood pressure in clinic (198/102 mmHg). They are asymptomatic for symptoms of preeclampsia, and their physical exam is unremarkable. Their lab work is as follows:
CBCdiff
WBC 8.1
Hb 118
MCV 87
RDW 14.9
Plt 322
Chemistry
ALT 72 (H)
Bilirubin 15
Cr 90 (H)
Urinalysis
Appearance yellow/clear
WBC 0
RBC 0
Protein 0
Ketones 0
pH 7.3
Urine PCR pending (takes 24h to return)
Practice
CASE 3: 34-year-old patient (G1P0) presents to assessment at 34w6d after being sent over by their OBGYN for very high blood pressure in clinic (198/102 mmHg). They are asymptomatic for symptoms of preeclampsia, and their physical exam is unremarkable.
How do you manage this patient?
This patient does not show symptoms of preeclampsia on history or exam, and only has very mildly elevated ALT/creat on labs. However, given how severely elevated the BP is, the risk of the patient having a stroke is much higher than the risks of preterm delivery.
IF BP CANNOT BE CONTROLLED in spite of using multiple anti-hypertensives: Provide MgSO4 for seizure prophylaxis, consider hydralazine IV infusion, and initiate delivery (mode of delivery depends on acuity of situation and favourability of cervix)
Resources
Resources
Resources
Interested in learning more? Check out these articles!
�SOGC Guidelines: Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy (2022)
https://www.jogc.com/article/S1701-2163(22)00234-1/abstract
�Preeclampsia: Narrative review for clinical use
�A literature review and best practice advice for second and third trimester risk stratification, monitoring, and management of pre-eclampsia
https://obgyn.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/ijgo.13763
Authors
Claudia Turco
Dr Rahim Janmohamed