ACCS Adult Home Health Test
* Required
Email address
*
Your email
Your Name
*
Last Name, First Name
Your answer
1. Which of the following is a sign of a UTI in a patient with a Foley Catheter?
A. Clear urine
B. Yellow urine
C. Blood in drainage bag
D. 250 cc of urine a 4-hour period
2. The physician gives an order for a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. You obtain a sample by:
A. Draining urine from the drainage bag into a cup with a lid
B. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tubing and allowing urine to drip into a sterile container, making sure not to allow the catheter to touch the container.
C. Put the sample on ice until the family member can take it to the lab.
D. Clamp the tubing below the port. Clean the port with an alcohol swab; withdraw 3 ml urine and put in sterile container, then unclamp tubing.
3. While doing catheter care on your patient with a Foley you notice dried blood at the tip on the urethra. What do you suspect?
A. The catheter may have been pulled when the patient was being turned.
B. The patient is hemorrhaging.
C. The catheter needs to be changed again (last change 2 weeks ago).
D. None of the above
4. Your patient has had no urine in the Foley drainage bag in the last 3 hours.
A. This is normal.
B. He must have been dehydrated.
C. The catheter may be blocked -- palpate the bladder for fullness.
5. What is your first nursing action for the question above?
A. Check for kinks in the tubing
B. Change the Foley.
C. Call the doctor
D. Do nothing
6. Your ventilator dependent quadriplegic patient should be turned how often unless otherwise ordered by the doctor?
A. Q6 hours
B. Q2 hours
C. Once a shift
D. Not at all if the patient does not complain of discomfort
7. You notice a reddened blanching area on your patient's right hip. What action do you take?
A. Nothing, it will go away.
B. Attempt to relieve pressure by turning the patient to the left side.
C. Begin wound care with 1/2 H2o2, NS QD
D. Place the patient back on the right side; this is preferred by the patient
8. The best way to perform a skin assessment on your client is to:
A. Remove the patient's clothing after a diaper change
B. Assess the skin during the patient's bath when skin is exposed
C. While the patient is up in the wheelchair
9. Your quadriplegic patient is at a high risk for fecal impaction because of:
A. Lack of mobility
B. Paralysis of bowel
C. Poor hydration
D. Both A & B
10. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy you:
A. Suction as deep as you can
B. Suction only to the end of the cannula
C. Place your thumb over the opening of the suction catheter during insertion
D. None of the above
11. How long should you suction a client via a trach?
A. For no longer than 15 seconds
B. For 30-40 seconds
C. For as long as is needed
12. Which of the following are signs of a respiratory infection in a person with a tracheostomy?
A. Thick white secretions
B. Thin white secretions
C. Copious amounts of secretion
D. Thick green tinged, foul smelling secretions
13. What is the importance of humidification in a person with an artificial airway?
A. To keep the patient hydrated
B. To prevent the consolidation of secretions in the airway
C. To keep the patient's Co2 levels within normal limits
14. Which of the following are indications for suctioning?
A. Restlessness
B. Wheezing
C. Wet breathing sounds
D. Cyanosis
E. All of the above
15. A tracheostomy change should be performed:
A. Using clean technique
B. Using sterile technique
C. However the client prefers
16. Bacterial contamination of indwelling urinary catheters for home care patients can often be avoided by:
A. Scheduling weekly catheter changes
B. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
C. Daily cleansing of the meatus and catheter with soap and water
D. Thorough cleansing of the meatus with appropriate antiseptic solution
17. While documenting the care of the home care patient, the nurse realizes that she did not document significant information from the day before. She should:
A. Rewrite yesterday's notes after discarding the original.
B. Include yesterday's information in today's note.
C. Document the information in a dated addendum on the original note.
D. Write "error" and initial after drawing a line through the note.
18. The measure of blood glucose control in a patient with diabetes mellitus is best determined by:
A.Regular evaluation of glucose tolerance tests
B. Home blood glucose monitoring several times daily
C. Daily monitoring of sugar and acetone content of urine
D. Measurement of sugar and acetone in double-voided specimens
19. Nurses completing incident reports following medication errors should be sure to do all of the following except:
A. Notify the physician
B. Correct the error
C. Notify the supervisor
D. Document in the note that an incident report was filed
20. When applying sterile gloves, the nurse is careful to:
A. Handle only the outside of the gloves
B. Pick the first glove up by the inside of the cuff
C. Keep gloves on the sterile field during the entire procedure
D. Insert his/her fingers under the outside of the cuff to apply the first glove
21. Which of the following observations would indicate that the nurse should withhold a tube feeding?
A. Oozing at the gastrostomy site
B. Absence of a gag reflex
C. Presence of more than 100 ml of residual fluid
D. Absence of residual feeding when the gastrostomy tube is suctioned
22. Patient's receiving gastrostomy tube feedings may experience gastric bloating and diarrhea if:
A. The feeding formula is changed
B. The feeding is delivered by electric pump infusion
C. The patient does not remain upright for 1 hour after infusion
D. The G-tube is not adequately flushed following each feeding
23. If the G-tube is clogged, the nurse should:
A. Push very hard to dislodge the clot
B. Call the supervisor for assistance
C. Try to irrigate with 30-60 ml of warm water
D. Change the tube immediately
24. When cleaning a new peg tube insertion site, the nurse should always cleanse the exit site:
A. With a vigorous back and forth sweeping motion
B. Circularly, from the exit site outward
C. Downward, from the farthest side away to the closest side
D. Upward, through the center of the site, then down each side
25. Before beginning a tube feeding via nasogastric tube, the nurse must first:
A. Measure and discard any residual feeding
B. Warm the feeding to 105 degrees
C. Check for proper tube placement
D. Dislodge encrusted formula with a warm water flush
26. When preparing to administer oxygen via nasal cannula, the nurse attaches the oxygen flow meter to a container of distilled water to:
A. Decrease the danger of oxygen combustion
B. Increase the patient's oxygen absorption
C. Remove any particle contaminants from the tubing
D. Prevent drying the patient's naso oropharyngeal mucosa
27. During a G-tube change, if the nurse meets resistance when placing the new tube, he/she should then:
A. Push harder- the tube will fit
B. Retry gently
C. Call the physician
D. Place gauze over the hole and tell the next nurse during report to try
28. The patient complains of extreme pain when the nurse begins to inflate the balloon of a urinary catheter. The most probable cause is:
A. The balloon has ruptured
B. The balloon is being inflated too rapidly
C. The balloon is not in the bladder but in the urethra
D. The patient is complaining due to the nature of the procedure
29. Which of the following is the best way for the nurse to assess the intensity of a patient's pain?
A. Ask the patient how long he has been having pain
B. Ask the patient to point to the location of the pain
C. Ask the patient to rate the pain on a scale of 0 (none) to 10 (severe)
D. By reviewing the notes from the previous day
30. Which of the following techniques should be utilized when obtaining a patient's blood pressure?
A. Place the arm above the level of the heart
B. Have the patient extend the arm with the palm facing downward
C. Place the cuff 1 inch above the position of the brachial artery
D. "Match up" the arrow on the cuff to the position where the brachial artery was felt
31. Which of the following would assist in reducing the incidence of aspiration in a patient with a tube feeding?
A. Clamp the tube after feeding has infused
B. Flush tube with water after each feeding
C. Dilute the feedings to half strength
D. Remain in an upright position for 45 minutes after an infusion
32. If 7.5 L of medication is ordered, the nurse can safely administer:
A. 75 ml
B. 0.075 ml
C. 750 ml
D. 7500 ml
33. A physician orders 5 ml of cough syrup Q4hrs. The nurse explains to the patient that this is approximately equal to:
A. 2 Tablespoons
B. 2 Teaspoons
C. 1 Ounce
D. 1 Teaspoon
34. 7.5 mg of iron is ordered Qday via peg tube. The bottle reads "5 mg per 10ml." The nurse will administer:
A. 5 ml
B. 15 ml
C. 7.5 ml
D. 10 ml
35. The patient is receiving restoril 0.015 g po at bedtime for insomnia. The label indicates 15 mg tablets. How many tablets does the nurse administer?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
36. Your home care patient has a fever and is experiencing nausea and vomiting. You should administer the antipyretic:
A. Orally
B. Rectally
C. Sublingually
D. Topically
37. Part of the treatment of a patient with a decubitus ulcer is to increase the patient's protein intake. The nurse should explain to the patient that he should eat more:
A. Fruits
B. Dark Leafy Greens
C. Eggs
D. Bran
38. A condition that would not increase the caloric need of a patient would be?
A. Severe Burns
B. Healing fracture
C. Surgical incision
D. Hayfever allergy
39. A nurse is administering pulse oximetry to a patient receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse explains to the patient that the purpose of this test is to:
A. Measure how much energy your body uses
B. Determines the pattern of your heart beat
C. Let us know how much fluid is in your lungs
D. Determines how much oxygen your tissues are receiving
40. Hytrin
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
41. Xopenex
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
42. Baclofen
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
43. Zithromax
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
44. Xanax
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
45. Tobramycin
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
46. Phenytoin
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
47. Novolin R
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
48. Coumadin
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
49. Zoloft
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
50. Zocor
Choose
A. antianxiety
B. anti-diabetic agent
C. muscle relaxant
D. vasodilator
E. antibiotic
F. cholesterol lowering agent
G. anticoagulant
H. anticonvulsant
I. bronchodilator
J. antidepressant
K. antihistamine
Submit
Never submit passwords through Google Forms.
This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google.
Report Abuse
-
Terms of Service
Forms