MCQ on Child Health Nursing

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Quiz-4

1. Which of the following is a sign of severe dehydration?

1 point

A. Sunken eyes and lethargy

B. Sunken eyes and restlessness

C. Skin pinch goes back slowly and restlessness

D. Lethargy and blood in stool

Clear selection

2. How many times should the infant be breast fed in 24 hours?

1 point

A. At least 6 times

B. At least 8 times

C. At least 10 times

D. At least 12 times

Clear selection

3. If the baby has oral thrush what will your advice the mother to do?

1 point

A. Ignore as it is common in breast fed infants.

B. Clean it with a sterile white cloth.

C. Apply 0.25% gentian violet paint.

D. Consult a medical officer at the district hospital.

Clear selection

4. When will you classify the child as having grade 1 malnutrition by interpreting the growth chart?

1 point

A. If the point is on or above the 1st curve

B. If the point is between 1st and 2nd curve

C. If the point is between 2nd and 3rd curve

D. If the point is between 3rd and 4th curve

Clear selection

5. In addition to assessing dehydration status, the mothers of ALL children with diarrhoea should be asked all the following EXCEPT

1 point

A. Did the child eat anything outside the home

B. Is the child sleeping well

C. How many times did the child have watery diarrhoea

D. Is there blood in stools

Clear selection

6. Prophylactic iron and folic acid are given to children

1 point

A. 6 months or older

B. 12 months or older

C. 18 months or older

D. 24 months or older

Clear selection

7. Introduction of solid foods along with breast feeding is called:

1 point

A. Demand feeding

B. Conditional feeding

C. Complementary feeding

D. Scheduled feeding

Clear selection

8. Pseudo hyphae are seen in:

1 point

A. Aspergillus

B. Penicillium

C. Mucor

D. Candida

Clear selection

9. Newborn gestation maturity rating is done using:

1 point

A. Chandler score

B. Olliander score

C. Apgar score

D. Ballard score

Clear selection

10. The total number of foetal and early neonatal deaths per 1000 live births is called:

1 point

A. Foetal death

B. Intrauterine death

C. Perinatal mortality

D. Neonatal death

Clear selection

11. The genera that needs pyridoxal for growth is:

1 point

A. Acro coccus

B. Enterococcus

C. Granulicatella and Abiotrophia

D. Pedi coccus

Clear selection

12. If palpating the tragus or auricle causes pain, the problem is:

1 point

A. Pharyngitis

B. Sinusitis

C. Otitis media

D. Otitis externa

Clear selection

13. Fine downy hair, normally found abundantly in premature babies, is called:

1 point

A. Vernix

B. Lanugo

C. Naevi

D. Caput

Clear selection

14. Microcephaly is diagnosed when head circumference is less than:

1 point

A. 3 standard deviation

B. 1 standard deviation

C. 2 standard deviation

D. 4 standard deviation

Clear selection

15. The mode of inheritance of cystic fibrosis is:

1 point

A. Autosomal dominant

B. Non-Mendelian

C. Autosomal recessive

D. X linked disease

Clear selection

16. Geeta with suspected rheumatic fever is admitted to the pediatric unit. When obtaining the child’s history, the nurse considers which information to be most important?

1 point

A. A fever that started 3 days ago

B. Lack of interest in food

C. A recent episode of pharyngitis

D. Vomiting for 2 days

Clear selection

17. Nurse suman is administering a medication via the intraosseous route to a child. Intraosseous drug administration is typically used when a child is:

1 point

A. Under age 3

B. Over age 3

C. Critically ill and under age 3

D. Critically ill and over age 3

Clear selection

18. Which age group child are most likely to view illness as a punishment for misdeeds?

1 point

A. Infancy

B. Preschool age

C. School age

D. Adolescence

Clear selection

19. At what age is the diagnosis of SIDS most likely?

1 point

A. At 1 to 2 years of age

B. At 1 week to 1 year of age, peaking at 2 to 4 months.

C. At 6 months to 1 year of age, peaking at 10 months.

D. At 6 to 8 weeks of age

Clear selection

20. When evaluating a severely depressed adolescent, the nurse knows that one indicator of a high risk for suicide is:

1 point

A. Depression

B. Excessive sleepiness

C. A history of cocaine use

D. A preoccupation with death

Clear selection

21. A child is diagnosed with Wilms tumor. During assessment, the nurse in charge expects to detect:

1 point

A. Gross haematuria

B. Dysuria

C. Nausea and vomiting

D. An abdominal mass

Clear selection

22. Which of the following is the best method for performing a physical examination on a toddler?

1 point

A. From head to toe

B. Distally to proximally

C. From abdomen to toes, the to head

D. From least to most intrusive

Clear selection

23. The nurse is aware that the most common assessment finding in a child with ulcerative colitis is:

1 point

A. Intense abdominal cramp

B. Profuse diarrhoea

C. Anal fissure

D. Abdominal distention

Clear selection

24. Bacteria responsible for the rheumatic fever?

1 point

A. Streptococcal pneumonia

B. Haemophilus influenza

C. Group A beta haemolytic streptococcus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

Clear selection

25. Which of the following is most likely associated with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from congenital heart disease?

1 point

A. Polycythemia

B. Cardiomyopathy

C. Endocarditis

D. Low blood pressure

Clear selection

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