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01 May 2026
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Q1. With reference to the proposed changes related to delimitation and constitutional
amendments in India, consider the following statements:
1. Article 82 of the Constitution provides for the readjustment of Lok Sabha seats after
every Census through a Delimitation Commission.
2. The 106th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2023 mandates immediate implementation of
women’s reservation in Parliament irrespective of delimitation.
3. The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body whose orders have the force of law and
cannot be challenged in any court.
4. Any Constitutional Amendment that seeks to alter the distribution of seats between
states in the Lok Sabha requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q2. With reference to the Deputy Chairman and Nominated Members of the Rajya Sabha,
consider the following statements:
1. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected from among its members under
Article 89 and performs the duties of the Chairman when the office of Vice-President is
vacant.
2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are entitled to vote in the election of the
President but not in the election of the Vice-President.
3. A nominated member of the Rajya Sabha may join a political party within six months of
taking their seat without attracting disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
4. A nominated member of the Rajya Sabha is constitutionally barred from being appointed
as a Union Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q3. With reference to the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme, consider the following
statements:
1. The OCI scheme was introduced through an amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955, in
2005.
2. OCI cardholders enjoy full parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in all economic,
financial, and property-related matters.
3. A person whose grandparents were citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh is not eligible for
OCI registration.
4. OCI cardholders require prior permission from the Government of India to undertake
certain activities such as research.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q4. With reference to the recently notified Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana (BHAVYA),
consider the following statements:

1. It aims to develop investment-ready plug-and-play industrial parks through a partnership
model involving States, Central Public Sector Undertakings, and private players.
2. The scheme is implemented through Special Purpose Vehicles jointly formed by the
State governments and the National Industrial Corridor Development and
Implementation Trust (NICDIT).
3. Financial assistance under the scheme is provided only for core infrastructure such as
roads, power, and water supply.
4. The scheme aligns with the objectives of PM GatiShakti for integrated and multimodal
infrastructure planning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q5. With reference to the “Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export
Facilitation (RELIEF) Scheme”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent scheme under the Foreign Trade Policy aimed at boosting India’s
merchandise exports.
2. It operates under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) and focuses on mitigating
extraordinary logistics and insurance-related risks.
3. The scheme is implemented by ECGC Ltd., which functions under the Ministry of
Finance.
4. It provides end-to-end support across the export cycle, including shipment planning and
risk insurance coverage.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q6. With reference to the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS), consider the
following statements:

1. MIS is a component of PM-AASHA aimed at price support for perishable agricultural
commodities not covered under MSP.
2. MIS is automatically triggered when market prices fall below the Minimum Support Price
(MSP) of notified crops.
3. The scheme is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare only
upon the request of State Governments.
4. Under MIS, the loss sharing pattern between the Centre and States is 50:50 for all
states, including North-Eastern states.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q7. With reference to the E-Mandate Framework for Digital Payments in India, consider the
following statements:
1. E-Mandate refers to a digital standing instruction enabling automatic debits for recurring
transactions.
2. As per the framework issued by Reserve Bank of India under the Payment and
Settlement Systems Act, 2007, a one-time registration with Additional Factor of
Authentication (AFA) is mandatory.
3. Once registered, e-mandates cannot be modified or withdrawn until the expiry of their
validity period.
4. Recurring transactions under e-mandate require AFA for every transaction, irrespective
of the amount.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q8. With reference to palm oil and India’s edible oil economy, consider the following statements:
1. Crude palm oil is obtained from the fruit pulp of oil palm and is primarily used for edible
purposes, whereas palm kernel oil is extracted from the seed and is largely used in non-
edible industries.

2. The oil palm tree (Elaeis guineensis) is native to Southeast Asia, and India is among the
top global producers of palm oil.
3. Indonesia and Malaysia together account for more than four-fifths of global palm oil
production.
4. The National Mission on Edible Oils – Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) aims to reduce import
dependence by promoting domestic cultivation of oil palm.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q9. With reference to Non-Deliverable Forwards (NDFs) in the foreign exchange market,
consider the following statements:
1. NDFs are foreign exchange derivative contracts that involve mandatory physical delivery
of currencies at maturity.

2. NDF markets are typically located offshore in global financial centres such as Singapore
and London.
3. NDFs are mainly used for currencies of countries with capital controls or limited onshore
market liquidity.
4. In India, the Reserve Bank of India has allowed authorized dealers to participate in the
NDF market for the Indian rupee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding India’s foodgrain economy and buffer
stock policy:
1. The norms for buffer stock of foodgrains in India are fixed by the Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs on a quarterly basis.
2. India’s horticulture production has surpassed foodgrain production, indicating a structural
shift towards high-value agriculture.
3. India is the largest producer of wheat and rice globally, while it ranks second in pulses
production.
4. Buffer stock is primarily maintained to meet emergency requirements, stabilize prices,
and supply foodgrains through welfare schemes like the Public Distribution System.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q11. With reference to India–Republic of Korea (ROK) relations, consider the following
statements:
1. The Republic of Korea has joined the International Solar Alliance, while India has joined
the Global Green Growth Institute, which is a treaty-based intergovernmental
organisation established at the Rio+20 Conference.
2. The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative, joined by South Korea, is a legally binding treaty
framework under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
3. The India–ROK Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), signed in
2010, is being sought to be upgraded by India to address trade imbalance.
4. The India–ROK Special Strategic Partnership was established after the launch of the
Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q12. With reference to regional cooperation mechanisms in East and Southeast Asia,
consider the following statements:
1. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations includes all Southeast Asian countries,
including Timor-Leste as a full member since 2025.
2. The Chiang Mai Initiative Multilateralisation is a currency swap arrangement among
ASEAN+3 countries aimed at addressing short-term liquidity problems.

3. The Digital Economy Framework Agreement (DEFA) is a legally binding free trade
agreement covering tariff reductions on digital goods among ASEAN members.
4. Regional integration initiatives like ASEAN tend to reduce economic disparities among
member countries through freer trade and factor mobility.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q13. With reference to Marine Heat Waves (MHWs) and Tropical Cyclones (TCs), consider
the following statements:
1. Marine Heat Waves are defined as a rise in sea surface temperature by at least 1°C
above normal for a minimum of three consecutive days.

2. Tropical cyclones passing over oceans experiencing Marine Heat Waves tend to show
higher maximum sustained wind speeds and enhanced precipitation.
3. Marine Heat Waves can increase the frequency of harmful algal blooms and stress non-
mobile marine organisms such as corals and sponges.
4. The formation of tropical cyclones requires the presence of strong vertical wind shear in
the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q14. With reference to bauxite mining in India and associated governance mechanisms,
consider the following statements:
1. Bauxite is primarily composed of hydrated aluminium oxides along with impurities such
as iron oxide, silica, and titania.
2. Under the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
(PESA), Gram Sabha consent is mandatory for land acquisition and development
projects in Scheduled Areas.
3. Odisha accounts for the largest share of India’s bauxite reserves, followed by
Chhattisgarh.
4. India is among the top three producers of bauxite globally.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q15. With reference to hanging glaciers, consider the following statements:

1. Hanging glaciers primarily transfer ice downslope through avalanches and icefalls rather
than basal flow.
2. They are generally more stable than valley glaciers due to their smaller size and limited
extent.
3. Sudden collapse of hanging glaciers can trigger Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
4. The recent identification of numerous unstable hanging glaciers has been reported in the
Alaknanda basin of Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q16. With reference to gold and its mining and distribution, consider the
following statements:
1. Gold occurs in nature both in native form and in combined form with other elements such
as sulphides.
2. Cyanide leaching is widely used in gold extraction because gold forms a soluble
complex with cyanide ions.
3. In India, the state with the highest gold reserves is also the leading producer of gold.

4. Placer deposits of gold in India are primarily associated with coastal regions such as
Kerala.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q17. With reference to Marine Spatial Planning (MSP) in India, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a statutory framework under the Ministry of Earth Sciences for regulating all marine
activities in India.
2. It aims to allocate spatial and temporal distribution of human activities in marine areas to
achieve ecological, economic and social objectives.
3. The Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission provides global guidelines and
supports countries in implementing MSP.

4. In India, MSP was first implemented under the Indo-Norway Integrated Ocean Initiative
(2019) in Union Territories such as Puducherry and Lakshadweep.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q18. With reference to the Salween River, consider the following statements:
1. It originates from the Tanggula Mountains on the Tibetan Plateau and drains into the
Gulf of Martaban.
2. It is the longest undammed river in Southeast Asia and is longer than the Mekong River.
3. Its basin is shared by China, Myanmar and Thailand.
4. Recent reports have highlighted arsenic contamination in its waters, raising
environmental and health concerns.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q19. With reference to bats in India, consider the following statements:
1. Bats are the only mammals capable of true powered flight and most species use
echolocation for navigation.
2. As per recent assessments by organizations such as Nature Conservation Foundation
and Bat Conservation International, India hosts more than 130 species of bats, with
several endemic species.
3. All bat species are classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the International Union for
Conservation of Nature Red List due to their wide distribution.
4. Bats contribute to ecosystem services such as pollination, seed dispersal, and biological
pest control.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q20. With reference to geckos and the recently discovered species
Cyrtodactylus jayadityai, consider the following statements:
1. Geckos belong to the suborder Gekkota and are primarily diurnal reptiles with dry, scaly
skin.
2. Adhesive toe pads in geckos are an evolutionary adaptation that enables them to climb
smooth vertical surfaces.

3. The genus Cyrtodactylus is among the most species-rich genera of geckos, with
significant diversity reported from Northeast India.
4. The discovery of Cyrtodactylus jayadityai in Tripura has increased the number of
Cyrtodactylus species in Northeast India to more than 30.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
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