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10.04.2026
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Q1. With reference to the recent reforms aimed at decriminalization of minor offences in India
(as seen in legislations such as the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023),
consider the following statements:
1. It replaces imprisonment with civil penalties for a large number of minor offences across
multiple Acts.
2. It introduces an adjudication mechanism to resolve disputes outside traditional courts.
3. It mandates automatic criminal prosecution for repeat offenders without any scope for
warnings.
4. It provides for periodic revision of monetary penalties to maintain their deterrent value.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q2. With reference to the recognition of political parties and election
symbols in India, consider the following statements:

1. A political party can retain its symbol if it secures at least 1% vote share in either of the
last two elections (Lok Sabha or State Assembly).
2. Unrecognised Registered Political Parties (RUPPs) are those which have either failed to
secure sufficient vote share or have never contested elections after registration.
3. RUPPs are entitled to exclusive use of a reserved election symbol across elections.
4. Recognised political parties are provided free broadcast time on state-owned media
during elections.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
Q3. With reference to the pardoning powers under the Constitution of India,
consider the following statements:

1. The power of the Governor under Article 161 extends to cases where the sentence is by
a Court Martial.
2. The Governor can grant pardon in cases of offences falling within the executive power of
the State.
3. The Governor’s power under Article 161 includes the power to commute a death
sentence.
4. The Governor exercises this power independently without being bound by the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. An institution can be declared as a ‘Deemed-to-be-University’ by the Central
Government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
2. The status of ‘Deemed-to-be-University’ is provided under the provisions of the
University Grants Commission Act, 1956.
3. The National Council of Educational Research and Training is a statutory body under the
Ministry of Education.
4. As per the National Education Policy 2020, NCERT has been designated as the nodal
agency for developing National Curriculum Frameworks (NCFs) for school and adult
education only.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q5. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and related legislative developments
in India, consider the following statements:
1. Article 44 of the Constitution of India mandates the immediate implementation of a
Uniform Civil Code across the country.
2. The Portuguese Civil Code, applicable in Goa, is often cited as an example of a
functional common civil code in India.
3. The prohibition of bigamy and mandatory registration of live-in relationships are among
the features proposed in recent State-level UCC legislations.
4. Scheduled Tribes are mandatorily covered under all proposed UCC frameworks without
any exemptions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q6. With reference to Gig Workers and recent policy developments in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The Code on Social Security, 2020 provides statutory recognition to both gig workers
and platform workers.
2. Under the Code, aggregators are mandated to contribute between 1% to 2% of their
annual turnover to a Social Security Fund, subject to a ceiling of 5% of the amount
payable to gig/platform workers.
3. Registration of gig workers on the e-Shram portal ensures portability of social security
benefits across platforms through a unique Aadhaar-linked ID.
4. Gig workers are considered formal employees under Indian labour laws and are entitled
to all benefits available to regular salaried employees.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q7. With reference to the Income Tax Act, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. The Act introduces the concept of a “Tax Year” by merging the Financial Year and
Assessment Year into a single unified term.
2. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is applicable to both corporate and non-corporate
taxpayers, while Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) is applicable only to companies.
3. The definition of “undisclosed income” has been expanded to include virtual digital
assets.
4. The Act introduces changes in tax rates and penalties to simplify compliance and
enhance predictability.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q8. With reference to the upcoming Census-2027 in India, consider the
following statements:
1. It will be the first Census in independent India to include caste enumeration for all
communities.
2. The Census in India is conducted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
3. The process will include a provision for self-enumeration through a secure digital
platform.
4. The Census exercise is carried out by the Office of the Registrar General and Census
Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
With reference to the Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) framework mandated by the
Reserve Bank of India for digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. Two-factor authentication requires the use of two independent authentication factors
belonging to different categories such as knowledge, possession, or inherence.
2. One-time passwords (OTP) alone are considered sufficient for fulfilling 2FA
requirements in digital transactions.
3. The 2FA framework applies only to card-based payments and excludes UPI-based
transactions.
4. Biometric authentication and device-based authentication can be considered valid
factors under 2FA.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q10. With reference to Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India and recent policy
measures, consider the following statements:
1. SEZs in India are treated as foreign territory for the purpose of trade operations and
duties.
2. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) has allowed SEZ units to sell
goods in the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) at concessional customs duty rates
permanently.
3. SEZs are governed by the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and the SEZ Rules, 2006.
4. Supplies from SEZs to the Domestic Tariff Area are generally treated as imports into
India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q11. With reference to the RoSCTL (Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies) Scheme,
recently seen in news due to its extension till September 2026, consider the following
statements:
1. The scheme aims to zero-rate textile exports by rebating embedded State and Central
taxes not refunded under any other mechanism.
2. The benefits under the scheme are provided in the form of transferable Duty Credit
Scrips.
3. The scheme is applicable to all sectors covered under the Production Linked Incentive
Scheme.
4. RoSCTL replaced the earlier Rebate of State Levies (RoSL) scheme for the textile
sector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q12. With reference to the recent amendment in India’s Income Tax Rules, 2026 regarding
General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR), consider the following statements:
1. Investments made before 1 April 2017 are excluded from GAAR applicability due to the
principle of grandfathering.
2. GAAR was originally introduced through the Finance Act, 2012 but became effective
from April 2017.
3. GAAR can be invoked even if the tax benefit arising from an arrangement is less than ₹3
crore.
4. An arrangement may attract GAAR if it lacks commercial substance or involves
misuse/abuse of provisions of law.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q13. With reference to the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) and the recent decline in
India’s manufacturing PMI, consider the following statements:
1. PMI is a leading indicator based on survey responses of purchasing managers regarding
business conditions such as output, new orders, and employment.
2. A PMI value below 50 necessarily implies negative GDP growth in the manufacturing
sector.
3. Manufacturing PMI is more sensitive to global supply chain disruptions compared to
Services PMI.
4. A slowdown in new orders component of PMI can signal weakening demand conditions
in the economy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q14. With reference to Non-Deliverable Derivatives (NDDs) in the Indian context, consider the
following statements:
1. NDDs are derivative contracts where settlement takes place without actual exchange of
the underlying currency.
2. These instruments are primarily traded in offshore markets and remain outside the direct
regulatory jurisdiction of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. NDDs emerged mainly due to full capital account convertibility of the Indian rupee.
4. NDDs are widely used by foreign investors who face restrictions in accessing the
onshore rupee market.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q15. With reference to India’s defence exports and related policy initiatives, consider the
following statements:
1. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) contribute more than half of India’s total
defence exports in FY 2025–26.
2. Under the current FDI policy in the defence sector, up to 74% Foreign Direct Investment
is permitted under the automatic route.
3. The Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020 mandates higher indigenous content in
procurement to promote self-reliance.
4. The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) initiative exclusively supports large
private sector companies in defence manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q16. With reference to the Coal Gasification Incentive Scheme approved by the Government of
India in 2024, consider the following statements:
1. Coal gasification converts coal into synthesis gas (syngas), which can be used for
producing chemicals such as methanol and ammonia.
2. The scheme aims to reduce India’s dependence on imports of petroleum, fertilizers, and
natural gas.
3. Under the scheme, Category I projects are exclusively led by private sector entities.
4. The scheme includes provisions for demonstration and small-scale projects to promote
technological innovation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q17. With reference to global chokepoints and their evolving significance, consider the
following statements:
1. Maritime chokepoints are limited only to narrow sea passages facilitating physical trade
of goods such as oil and gas.
2. Disruptions in chokepoints can lead to increased freight costs, insurance premiums, and
contribute to global inflationary pressures.
3. Climate change has no significant role in altering the functioning or vulnerability of
chokepoints.
4. Certain digital infrastructures, such as subsea communication cables, are increasingly
being recognised as chokepoints in global systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q18. Q. With reference to the Arab League, consider the following statements:
1. It was established in 1945 following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol.
2. All its member countries are located exclusively in West Asia.
3. It aims to promote coordination of policies among member states while respecting their
sovereignty.
4. Its headquarters is located in Cairo, Egypt.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q19. With reference to the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
(ECTA), consider the following statements:
1. Australia has provided preferential market access to all Indian exports under the
agreement, covering 100% of tariff lines.
2. From January 2026, all Indian exports to Australia are eligible for zero-duty access.
3. India has granted preferential access to more than 90% of its tariff lines to Australia
under ECTA.
4. The agreement includes a Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) in the organic sector
to facilitate trade.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q20. With reference to Western Disturbances (WDs), consider the following statements:

1. Western Disturbances originate in the Mediterranean Sea region due to interaction
between warm tropical and cold polar air masses.
2. They are steered by the Subtropical Westerly Jet, which flows from west to east in the
mid-latitudes.
3. They primarily affect peninsular India during the southwest monsoon season.
4. They contribute significantly to the replenishment of Himalayan glaciers and are crucial
for Rabi crops in northwest India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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