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Chapter 6 (Part 2)
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Question 1. Which two of the following investments provide capital appreciation and income?

I. Property
II. Options
III. Equities
IV. Premium Bond
*
1 point
Question 2. A higher-rate taxpayer has been recommended UK government debt (gilts). If they have a low risk preference, which type of gilt is most appropriate? *
1 point
Question 3. Which term correctly describes the difference in returns of a tracker fund and the index it is tracking? *
1 point
Question 4. Which statement about systemic risk is LEAST LIKELY to be correct? *
1 point
Question 5. Rank the following investments in order of risk, riskiest first:

I. Ordinary shares
II. Secured debentures
III. Convertible loan stock
IV. Preference shares
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1 point
Question 6. Money market funds would invest in which of the following? *
1 point
Question 7. A rise in inflation would benefit: *
1 point
Question 8. An investor owns a large portfolio of UK equity but now has a very bearish attitude to the markets. What would you recommend if they are a very high risk investor? *
1 point
Question 9. An investor wants to hedge a short equity position as she believes the stock price will rise, incurring a loss on her position. Which is the best strategy to adopt? *
1 point
Question 10. The risk that a share you own performing poorly in relation to shares of other companies is what type of risk? *
1 point
Question 11. Which of the following investment institutions would most likely invest in low-risk, low-return, short-dated investments? *
1 point
Question 12. Which of the following securities is most suitable if you are an investor who wishes to have an increase in returns as the performance of the company improves? *
1 point
Question 13. Which one of the following might be a passive investment management style? *
1 point
Question 14. If a fund manager fully subscribes to the efficient market hypothesis (EMH), he is likely to adopt which of the following strategies? *
1 point
Question 15. When choosing more investments to add into a portfolio, which type of correlation with existing investments would reduce the risk the greatest? *
1 point
Question 16. Which of the following is the most suitable for a medium-risk investor? *
1 point
Question 17. Which of the following explains the relationship for risk and return for any rational investor? *
1 point
Question 18. A bank is seeking to hedge a short-term exposure to interest rates using a standardised, liquid, low-cost contract. Which of the following would be best? *
1 point
Question 19. Which of the following is TRUE in respect of passive fund management relative to active fund management? *
1 point
Question 20. Why would an investor choose a CC-rated bond as opposed to an A-rated bond? *
1 point
Question 21. An investor looking for an investment that provides long-term capital growth, regular and predictable income should invest in which of the following? *
1 point
Question 22. Which of the following statements regarding passive fund management is LEAST LIKELY to be true? *
1 point
Question 23. Where an issuing company markets short term debt securities directly to a buy and hold investor such as most money market funds, they would be selling which of the following? *
1 point
Question 24. When there is an increase in the number of assets in a portfolio, total risk is: *
1 point
Question 25. Which of the following is/are true of systematic risk?

I. It can be controlled by diversification
II. It is the total risk for a fully diversified portfolio
III. It is the risk particular to a particular investment
*
1 point
Question 26. When would you advise a client to consider equities? *
1 point
Question 27. As a portfolio becomes increasingly well-diversified, which of the following will be driven towards zero? *
1 point
Question 28. Returns to investments are usually calculated as: *
1 point
Question 29. An investment is set up to meet a future liability. The risk that the income from the bonds is invested at an interest rate lower than the interest rate at the start of the fund is called: *
1 point
Question 30. On what basis are companies selected for inclusion in the FTSE 100? *
1 point
Question 31. The death of a company's CEO would represent which one of the following risks? *
1 point
Question 32. Buying which of the following will NOT achieve diversification? *
1 point
Question 33. What can be associated with a security that has a Beta of less than one? *
1 point
Question 34. The standard deviation of a well-diversified portfolio is equal to: *
1 point
Question 35. An investor has placed their money into an infrequent actively managed account. Which of the following is most likely? *
1 point
Question 36. Additional return when taking additional risk is called: *
1 point
Question 37. In the Modern Portfolio Theory, unsystematic risk is: *
1 point
Question 38. A stock has a beta of 1.2 and is being traded in a market that is expected to grow by 5%. What is the stock's CAPM considering that Treasury Bills have a return of 2%? *
1 point
Question 39. The current risk free-rate is 4% and the market risk premium is 12%. What is the expected return from a security with a Beta of 1.2? *
1 point
Question 40. When an investor believes that something will not occur in the future because it has already occurred many times in the past, this is called: *
1 point
Question 41. GARP is an example of: *
1 point
Question 42. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

I. Growth investing seeks growth in regular payments
II. Value investing seeks to invest contrary to the market III. Income investing seeks increase in investment value IV. Absolute return investing uses short selling techniques
*
1 point
Question 43. When an investor believes that the price of a stock will revert to its mean, this is called: *
1 point
Question 44. When a firm implements an agreed policy for all its investment managers to follow, this is referred to as: *
1 point
Question 45. Four bond portfolios each hold a variety of bonds. Which one of them is BEST described as operating a ladder strategy? *
1 point
Question 46. When an investor invests in a zero-coupon bond to cover a future liability in 3 years, what form of immunization is this referred to? *
1 point
Question 47. Morningstar evaluates funds based on five pillars: *
1 point
Question 48. Which of the following removes the impact of cash flows in and out of a portfolio when measuring performance? *
1 point
Question 49. A portfolio with a variance of 9% and beta of 1.2 made a total return of 7%. What is the portfolio's Sharpe ratio considering that Treasury Bills gave a return of 2% during the same period? *
1 point
Question 50. When there is an increase in the number of assets in a portfolio, total risk is: *
1 point
Question 51. Abnormal return for a portfolio is calculated as: *
1 point
Question 52. What can be associated with a security that has a Beta of less than one? *
1 point
Question 53. The measure of risk in the Capital Asset Pricing Model is: *
1 point
Question 54. Within Prospect Theory, a higher risk-aversion to invest own pension than to invest an occupational pension is known as? *
1 point
Question 55. Portfolio performance is: *
1 point
Question 56. Given the following information about a portfolio, which sector provided the best contribution from stock selection?

Sector | Portfolio Weight % | Sector Return % | Portfolio Return %
Consumer | 23 | 10 | 10.3
Industrials | 19 | 15 | 15.2
Services | 15 | 12 | 12.3
Utilities | 12 | 7 | 7.6
*
1 point
Question 57. An investor allowed the principle of 'regret aversion' to influence his actions. This resulted in him: *
1 point
Question 58. Bond portfolio X exclusively contains relatively long-dated stock whereas Bond portfolio Y operates a laddering strategy. This means that Bond X is likely to: *
1 point
Question 59. An investment manager believes that markets are inefficient and that he can obtain abnormal returns after transaction charges. Which investment style is he most likely to adopt? *
1 point
Question 60. Which of the following is a feature in Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT)? *
1 point
Question 61. Fund ABC was valued at $10.5 million at the start of the year and $11.8 million at the end of the year. The asset allocation was 60% equities and 40% bonds. If the fund's benchmark assumes 50/50 allocation and, over this period, equities achieved +7% and bonds achieved +5%, then the fund will have: *
1 point
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