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PRACTICE MCQ's-28.11.2025
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In the context of the Doctrine of Clean Hands in Indian jurisprudence, consider the following statements:

1.The doctrine bars a litigant from seeking equitable relief only when the opposing party proves deliberate fraud committed by the litigant during the trial stage.

2. Under Indian constitutional jurisprudence, suppression of material facts by a petitioner may be treated as abuse of the process of law and can lead to dismissal of proceedings even under writ jurisdiction.

3. The doctrine, inherited from English Chancery Courts, is applicable only to civil suits and has no relevance in proceedings under Article 136 of the Constitution.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Options:

2 points
Clear selection

With reference to the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) constituted under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, consider the following statements:

1. A Chief Judicial Magistrate with less than three years of experience may serve as the Principal Magistrate of a Juvenile Justice Board if nominated by the State Government.

2. The Board may transfer a case involving a child aged 16–18 years accused of a heinous offence to a Children’s Court only after conducting a preliminary assessment.

3. The Board is mandated to carry out monthly inspection visits to residential facilities for children in conflict with law.

4.Ensuring legal aid for the child is a statutory responsibility of the Board.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

With reference to the Special Leave Petition (SLP) under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court may grant special leave to appeal only from final judgments or decrees of High Courts, but not from interim or interlocutory orders.

2. The right to file an SLP is available only when a specific statute provides no alternative appellate remedy.

3. The Supreme Court’s power under Article 136 can be exercised even when substantial questions of law are absent, as the Article confers a constitutional right to appeal.

4. An SLP can be filed against decisions of tribunals, except those constituted under laws relating to the Armed Forces.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
2 points
Clear selection

With reference to the National Industrial Classification (NIC) 2025, consider the following statements:

1.The introduction of a 6-digit coding structure in NIC 2025 primarily aims to incorporate technology-specific production techniques within each industrial class.

2.NIC 2025 aligns India’s industrial classification with ISIC Revision 5 and introduces enhanced categories for both digital-platform services and environmental remediation activities.
3.Under NIC 2025, activities such as intermediaries in power, logistics, and healthcare are newly classified to improve measurement of emerging service-sector linkages.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

You are examining the implications of the Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025 for a taxpayer who has realised long-term capital gains shortly before the due date for filing income tax returns. Which of the following statements, when taken together, MOST accurately explain how the amended scheme changes the taxpayer’s options compared to the original Capital Gains Account Scheme, 1988?

1.The taxpayer can now deposit the unutilised capital gains through electronic modes such as UPI, IMPS, and debit/credit cards, which were not explicitly recognised earlier.

2.The taxpayer may now deposit short-term capital gains into CGAS due to the widened scope of eligible financial institutions.

3.Deposits can now be made in authorised non-rural branches of major private banks, whereas earlier deposits were largely restricted to public sector banks.

4.A taxpayer residing in a rural area is allowed to open a CGAS account in any nearby rural branch of a private bank, provided the population of the village is below 10,000.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 points
Clear selection

With reference to Curaçao, consider the following statements:

1.Despite being located on the South American continental shelf, Curaçao is generally classified as part of the Lesser Antilles.

2.The head of government of Curaçao is the Governor, who is directly appointed by the Dutch monarch.

3.Curaçao enjoys full internal self-governance, except for matters specifically reserved under the Charter for the Kingdom of the Netherlands.

According to the 2023 census, Curaçao has a higher number of males than females.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

With reference to the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) and the geography of Seychelles, consider the following statements:

1. Seychelles, a member of the CSC, lies on the Mascarene Plateau and includes both granitic and coralline islands, of which fewer than 10 are permanently inhabited.

2.Among the member states of the CSC, Seychelles is the only country located east of the Maldives and northeast of Madagascar.

3.The Secretariat of the CSC is located in Victoria, the capital city of Seychelles.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Hayli Gubbi, recently in news for its unusual volcanic activity, provides insights into the geotectonic processes of the Danakil Depression. Which one of the following sets of statements correctly distinguishes the nature of this volcano and the associated atmospheric phenomena during an eruption?

1.It belongs to a volcanic range known for persistent lava lakes and is composed predominantly of fluid basaltic lava.

2.Despite being the southernmost in its range, it has historically produced steep stratocone structures due to viscous magma.

3.An eruptive ash cloud from this volcano would typically carry fine volcanic ash and sulphur dioxide, posing direct respiratory risks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 points
Clear selection

Two tropical cyclones, A and B, form over the western Pacific. Cyclone A has significantly higher central pressure (i.e., is weaker) and a smaller radius of maximum winds compared to Cyclone B. As they approach within 1,000 km of each other, meteorologists observe a gradual deviation in the track of Cyclone A toward the northeast while Cyclone B slows down and drifts westward.

Based on the principles of the Fujiwhara Effect, which of the following most accurately explains this behavior?

2 points
Clear selection

With reference to the Ginkgo-toothed Beaked Whale (Mesoplodon ginkgodens), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.It is known to inhabit only the temperate waters of the North Pacific, with no confirmed presence in the Indian Ocean.

2. Despite being one of the deepest-diving mammals, it typically shows extensive body scarring due to frequent intraspecific combat, similar to most other beaked whales.

3.Its inclusion under CITES is meant to regulate international trade, even though its global population trend remains uncertain.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2026:

1.The CCPI is jointly published by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute, and Climate Action Network International.

2.It evaluates countries based on four parameters: greenhouse gas emissions, renewable energy, energy use, and climate policy.

3.In 2026, India was classified as a ‘high performer’ despite being among the largest producers of oil, gas, and coal.

4.Denmark, the UK, and Morocco topped the 2026 CCPI rankings, while China, Russia, the US, and Saudi Arabia were among the lowest-performing G20 nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Assertion (A): Protidricerus albocapitatus adults perch on grass blades in lateritic soils and are aerial predators.

Reason (R): Owlflies exhibit holometabolous development and have long, clubbed antennae which aid in detecting prey during flight.

Options:

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements about the Indian Pond Heron (Ardeola grayii):

1.During the breeding season, it develops maroon plumes on its back and a long occipital crest.

2.It is strictly freshwater-dependent and avoids saline or man-made aquatic habitats.

3.Its feeding strategy involves standing motionless at the water’s edge to ambush prey such as crustaceans and tadpoles.

4.The species is categorized under Schedule II of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary, Chandigarh:

It was established primarily as a protected area for migratory birds around Sukhna Lake.

The sanctuary lies at the foothills of the Shivalik range and has sandy soil with pockets of clay, making it prone to soil erosion.

The sanctuary hosts the largest natural congregation of sambar deer in India.

Its vegetation is exclusively forested, with no significant grassland or wetland ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding the African Grey Parrot (Psittacus erithacus):

1.It is native to both West and Central Africa and inhabits lowland forests, woodlands, and savannahs.

2.African Grey Parrots exhibit sexual dimorphism, with males being darker than females as they age.

3.Its ability to mimic human speech is considered less advanced compared to other parrot species.

4. It is listed as 'Endangered' under the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss and trapping for the pet trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding mosses:

1.Mosses are non-vascular spore-bearing plants and among the earliest colonizers of terrestrial habitats.

2.They play a role in nutrient cycling, soil erosion control, and can act as bioindicators for environmental pollution.

3.Mosses are predominantly found in saline water environments due to their high salt tolerance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Tetrachloroethylene (PCE), a chlorinated solvent, poses significant environmental and health concerns. Which of the following statements about tetrachloroethylene is/are correct?

1.Tetrachloroethylene is highly soluble in water and decomposes rapidly in soil.

2. It can persist in the environment due to slow degradation in air, water, and soil, and can contaminate groundwater through improper disposal.

3.Acute exposure to very high concentrations may lead to neurological symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, and even unconsciousness.

4. Its major industrial applications include use as a degreasing agent, in dry cleaning, and in the production of other chemicals.

Select the correct answer:

2 points
Clear selection

Tetrachloroethylene (PCE), a volatile organic compound, poses environmental and health risks due to its persistence and bioaccumulation potential. Consider the following statements:

1.Tetrachloroethylene is noncombustible, poorly soluble in water, and evaporates quickly from aquatic systems into the atmosphere.

2.Its slow degradation in soil and water, along with industrial discharge, can lead to groundwater contamination.

3.PCE exposure at high concentrations primarily affects the central nervous system, causing dizziness, confusion, and in extreme cases, unconsciousness.

Which of the following is correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding African Swine Fever (ASF):

1.ASF is a zoonotic disease capable of infecting humans and other livestock species.

2. The virus can survive in the environment and in pork products for prolonged periods, contributing to its transmission.

3.Soft ticks play a role in ASF transmission in certain (sub)tropical regions.

4. There is currently no vaccine or treatment available for ASF, making strict biosecurity measures the primary control strategy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Birsa-101, recently developed by the CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), is hailed as India’s first indigenous CRISPR-based therapy. Which of the following statements regarding Birsa-101 and its therapeutic mechanism for Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is correct ?

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