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24 March 2026
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Q1. With reference to the implementation of the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution
(106th Amendment) Act, 2023) and the proposed early delimitation exercise, consider the
following statements:
1. The Act mandates that women’s reservation will come into force only after a delimitation
exercise based on the first Census conducted after its enactment.
2. The Constitution explicitly fixes the strength of the Lok Sabha at 543, and any increase
requires a Constitutional Amendment.
3. Reservation for women under the Act also applies within the seats reserved for
Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
4. The rotation of seats reserved for women is to be carried out after every general election
as per provisions of the Act.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q2. With reference to the removal of judges in India, consider the following statements:
1. The procedure for removal of judges of both the Supreme Court and High Courts is
regulated by the Judges Enquiry Act, 1968.
2. A motion for removal of a judge can be introduced in either House of Parliament only
after prior approval of the President of India.
3. If the inquiry committee finds the judge guilty, the motion must be passed in both Houses
by a special majority.
4. Even after both Houses pass the motion, the judge is removed only after an order by the
President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q3. With reference to languages in the Constitution of India and recent developments, consider
the following statements:
1. Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967 added Sindhi language to the Eighth
Schedule without specifying any state for its official use.
2. The Constitution of India was originally drafted in Hindi and later translated into English
by a committee of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Hindi version of the Constitution was formally adopted and signed along with the
English version on 24 January 1950.
4. The number of languages in the Eighth Schedule has remained unchanged since the
addition of Sindhi in 1967.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q4. With reference to “Access to Justice” in India, consider the following statements:

1. Article 39A of the Constitution mandates the State to provide free legal aid and ensure
that justice is not denied due to economic or other disabilities.
2. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides for the establishment of statutory
bodies like the National Legal Services Authority to deliver free legal services.
3. Lok Adalats have the power to adjudicate disputes only after formal court proceedings
have begun and cannot take up pre-litigation cases.
4. The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 aims to decentralize justice delivery by establishing
courts at the grassroots level in rural areas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q5. With reference to the concept of ‘Whip’ in the Indian parliamentary system, consider
the following statements:

1. The concept of whip in India is explicitly provided under the Constitution of India.
2. A three-line whip obligates members to vote strictly in accordance with the party’s
direction, failing which may attract disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
3. The Speaker or Chairman can disqualify a member only if the whip violated was issued
during a no-confidence motion.
4. A one-line whip allows members certain discretion, including abstaining from voting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q6. With reference to the recusal of judges in India, consider the following statements:
1. The principle underlying recusal is derived from the doctrine of natural justice,
particularly the rule against bias.
2. The procedure and grounds for recusal are codified under the Constitution of India.
3. In Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987), the Supreme Court emphasized that even a
reasonable likelihood of bias is sufficient to invalidate a decision.

4. A judge is legally bound to recuse if any party raises an allegation of bias, irrespective of
its merit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q7. With reference to the Right to Vote in India, consider the following statements:
1. The right to vote in India is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution.
2. Article 326 provides for universal adult suffrage for elections to the Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies.
3. A person can be disqualified from being registered in an electoral roll on grounds of
unsoundness of mind under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
4. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person confined in prison is not
entitled to vote, except under certain conditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q8. With reference to the process of Delimitation in India and the concerns raised by certain
States, consider the following statements:
1. The Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body whose orders cannot be
challenged in any court of law.
2. Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution empower Parliament to enact a law for
readjustment of constituencies after every Census.
3. The number of seats allocated to States in the Lok Sabha is currently frozen until the
first Census after 2026.
4. Delimitation based strictly on population may lead to relatively lower political
representation for States that have successfully implemented population control
measures.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q9. With reference to the proposed 131st Constitutional Amendment Bill
and the Delimitation Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The proposed amendment seeks to increase the strength of the Lok Sabha to 850
members, including representation from both States and Union Territories.
2. The deletion of the third proviso to Article 82 would enable delimitation based on Census
data prior to the first Census after 2026.
3. The Delimitation Commission’s orders are subject to judicial review under the Supreme
Court’s writ jurisdiction.
4. The proposed amendment to Article 334A links the implementation of women’s
reservation in legislatures with the completion of delimitation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q10. With reference to Solar Energy in India, consider the following statements:
1. India ranks third globally in cumulative solar power capacity as per the International
Renewable Energy Agency Renewable Energy Statistics 2025.
2. The PM Surya Ghar Yojana aims to install rooftop solar systems in one crore
households, and more than 20 lakh households have already benefited as of 2025.
3. Concentrated Solar Power (CSP) technology generates electricity directly using
semiconductor materials.
4. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Solar PV focuses on boosting domestic
solar manufacturing and has attracted investments exceeding ₹50,000 crore.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q11. With reference to the recently discussed global financing challenges and the United
Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs report on Financing for Development,
consider the following statements:

1. The Sevilla Commitment was adopted at the Fourth International Conference on
Financing for Development (FfD4) held in Spain in 2025 to address the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDG) financing gap.
2. The estimated SDG financing gap in developing countries is around $4 trillion annually.
3. The emergence of alternatives to the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunication reflects increasing financial globalization and integration.
4. The Sevilla Platform for Action (SPA) is a legally binding mechanism to enforce
commitments made under the Sevilla Commitment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q12. With reference to rising digital payment frauds in India and the measures proposed
by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. In Authorised Push Payment (APP) frauds, transactions are typically executed without
the knowledge or consent of the victim.
2. The RBI has proposed introducing a time lag for certain digital transactions along with a
provision for payer-initiated cancellation.

3. Mule accounts are primarily linked to cross-border hawala transactions and are not
relevant to domestic digital payment frauds.
4. Tools such as Mulehunter.AI and the proposed Digital Payment Intelligence Platform
(DPIP) leverage advanced technologies to detect fraudulent patterns.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q13. With reference to the recent proposals of the Reserve Bank of India regarding Non-
Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), consider the following statements:
1. The identification of Upper Layer NBFCs is proposed to be based solely on an asset size
threshold of ₹1 lakh crore or more.
2. Government-owned NBFCs such as NABARD and SIDBI will continue to remain exempt
from Upper Layer regulatory requirements.
3. Upper Layer NBFCs may be allowed to use State Government guarantees as a credit
risk transfer mechanism without quantitative limits.

4. NBFCs accepting public deposits are covered under deposit insurance provided by
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q14. With reference to the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) introduced by the Reserve Bank of
India, consider the following statements:

1. It allows banks to park surplus liquidity with the RBI without providing any collateral.
2. It has replaced the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) as the upper bound of the liquidity
adjustment facility (LAF) corridor.
3. It is positioned below the policy repo rate and acts as the floor of the interest rate
corridor.
4. It was introduced primarily as a financial stability tool in addition to liquidity management.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q15. With reference to the relationship between climate change and
poverty in India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Institute of Science Education and Research is an autonomous institute
under the Department of Atomic Energy.
2. An increase in the share of the service sector in Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP)
has no statistically significant effect on reducing poverty vulnerability to climate shocks.
3. Scheduled Tribe (ST) populations are relatively less vulnerable to climate-induced
poverty due to diversified livelihood options.

4. Strengthening the implementation of National Action Plan on Climate Change and State
Action Plans on Climate Change is considered crucial for addressing climate-linked
poverty.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q16. With reference to the “Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0 (FoF 2.0)” scheme, consider
the following statements:
1. The scheme directly provides equity funding to startups through the Government of
India.
2. It contributes to SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which in turn
invest in startups.

3. The implementation of the scheme is entrusted to the Small Industries Development
Bank of India.
4. The scheme includes a segmented approach that prioritizes deep-tech, manufacturing,
and early-stage startups.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q17. (UPSC Prelims Pattern – Multi-Statement, Analytical, Current + Conceptual Linkage)
With reference to the emerging “Middle-Class Economic Crisis” in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Despite high GDP growth, stagnation in real incomes can occur if inflation outpaces
nominal wage growth.
2. Rapid adoption of Artificial Intelligence and automation may lead to structural
unemployment by displacing certain skill categories faster than new jobs are created.

3. The middle class contributes a negligible share to India’s domestic consumption, hence
its distress has limited macroeconomic impact.
4. High out-of-pocket expenditure on healthcare in India increases financial vulnerability of
middle-income households not fully covered by public welfare schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q18. With reference to the Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) and the Indian
Ocean Region (IOR), consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) is an initiative of the Government of India under the
Ministry of External Affairs launched after 2020.
2. The Indian Ocean Region handles nearly half of global container traffic and about two-
thirds of global oil shipments.

3. India’s doctrine of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) is associated with
promoting cooperative maritime security in the IOR.
4. The Indian Ocean is the coldest among the world’s oceans, making it less biologically
productive compared to others.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q19. With reference to the impact of geopolitical conflicts in West Asia on India, consider
the following statements:

1. A significant share of India’s crude oil and LPG imports originates from West Asia,
making India vulnerable to energy price shocks.
2. Disruptions in West Asia can adversely affect India’s fertilizer availability due to
dependence on imported inputs like natural gas.
3. Labour disruptions in Gulf countries have negligible impact on India’s remittance inflows.
4. Rising energy prices can indirectly influence India’s currency stability and inflation levels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q20. With reference to the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC), consider the following statements:
1. It is primarily driven by differences in temperature and salinity, which influence water
density in the Atlantic Ocean.
2. It transports warm, saline surface water from the Gulf of Mexico towards the North
Atlantic, contributing to milder climates in Western Europe.

3. Increased freshwater influx from melting ice sheets enhances water density and
strengthens the AMOC.
4. A collapse of AMOC may lead to a southward shift of the tropical rain belt and disruption
of the Indian monsoon system.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
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