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AIMT Test -7
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1. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

1.It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change

2.It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

2. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1.Volcanic action

2.Respiration

3.Photosynthesis

4.Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2,3 and 4

2 points
Clear selection

3. Consider the following statements :

1.Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environments (Protection) Act, 1986

2.National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body

3.National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister

Which if the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2 points
Clear selection

4. Consider the following statements:

1.The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’

2.The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

5. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

1.Nagarhole National Park

2.Papikonda National Park

3.Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

4.Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2 points
Clear selection

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to

1.protection of biodiversity

2.resilience of forest ecosystems

3.poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2 points
Clear selection

7. Consider the following fauna of India:

1.Gharial

2.Leatherback turtle

3.Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

2 points
Clear selection

8. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?

1.Carbon dioxide

2.Carbon monoxide

3.Nitrogen dioxide

4.Sulfur dioxide

5.Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

2 points
Clear selection

9. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1.The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the government

2.The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

10. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1.TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

2.The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

11. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(c) 5815 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

2 points
Clear selection

12. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements :

1.Wild animals are the sole property of the government.

2.When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.

3.Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

2 points
Clear selection

13. Consider the following statements:

1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).

2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.

3.India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

2 points
Clear selection

14. The term 'M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in news in the context of

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs

(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System

(d) Security of National Highways

2 points
Clear selection

15.“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

2 points
Clear selection

16  "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

2 points
Clear selection

17. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

(a) Ecotone

(b) Ecological niche

(c) Habitat

(d) Home range

2 points
Clear selection

18. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither I nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

19. Inland water quality-monitoring network is operated under

a) Global Environment Monitoring System (GEMS)

b) Monitoring of Indian National Aquatic Resources System (MINARS)

c) Yamuna Action Plan (YAP)

d) All the above

2 points
Clear selection

20. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: (2011)

1. Species richness

2. Vegetation density

3. Endemism

4. Ethno-botanical importance

5. Threat perception

6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

(a.) 1, 2 and 6

(b.) 2, 4 and 6

(c.) 1, 3 and 5

(d.) 3, 4 and 6

2 points
Clear selection

21. Which of the following women was/were poetess (es) during the Vedic period?

1. Andal

2. Lopamudra

3. Usha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above. 

2 points
Clear selection

22. In ancient India, the term ‘Gaulmika’ was used to refer to the

(a) Provincial governor

(b) Scribe attached to the royal court

(c) Head of the rural area administration

(d) Specialist in Vedic rituals 

2 points
Clear selection

23.Who among the following was/were the contemporary/ contemporaries of Harshavardhana?

1. Jinsaena

2. Ravikirti

3. Rajashekhar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

2 points
Clear selection

24. In ancient India, the term ‘Skandhavaras’ was used to refer to the

(a) military camps

(b) royal scribes

(c) Jain monks wearing white clothes

(d) revenue collectors

2 points
Clear selection

25. Consider the following statements:

1. At the outset, the Samkhya School of Philosophy was spiritualistic, but later it tended to become materialistic.

2. In this School, the creation of the world was attributed to Prakriti and Purusha.

3. The great sage Kanada was the founder of the Samkhya School.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2 points
Clear selection

26. Consider the following statements about the philosophical systems in Ancient India:

1. The Nyaya Philosophy developed as a system of logic.

2. The Vaisheshika School propounded the atom theory, believing that all material objects are made up of atoms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

27. Consider the following statements about 'Khudkasht' during the Mughal period:

1. Khudkasht was the peasants who owned the land which they tilled.

2. The Khudkasht often belonged to a dominant caste, which dominated the village society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

28. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India:

1. Moinuddin Chisti was the first Sufi saint to come to India and settle.

2. Ziyarat refers to pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi saints.

3. Maktubat is compilations of conversations of the Sufi saints.

4. Malfuzat is collections of letters written by the Sufi masters, addressed to their disciples and associates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2 points
Clear selection

29. Consider the following statements about  Vallabhacharya:

1. His philosophy is known as Shuddha Advaita.

2. He propounded the Pustimarga.

3. He was instrumental in establishing the Srinathji Temple at Nathdwara in Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3  

2 points
Clear selection

30. Consider the following statements about agrarian relations during the Mughal times:

1. Muzarian refers to the peasants.

2. Pahi-Kashta was the residents of the village in which they held their lands.

3. Peasant lands could not be bought and sold.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

2 points
Clear selection

31. Consider the following statements about agriculture during the Mughal period:

1. Jins-i Kamil refers to the crops that were cash crops in nature.

2. Jahangir banned the cultivation of tobacco.

3. Bengal was famous for sugar production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

2 points
Clear selection

32. Consider the following statements about Kabir:

1. Kabir’s ideas are known from a vast collection of verses, called Sakhis and Pads.

2. His verses have been compiled in Guru Granth Sahib, Panch Vani and Bijak.

3. Kabir believed in formless Supreme God.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

2 points
Clear selection

33. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Kampaharesvara temple at Tribhuvanam is an example of the early style Chola temple.

2. The inscription at Thirubhuvanai provides the details of the colleges that existed in the Chola territory.

3. The Cholas are known for importing horses from Arabia.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only 

2 points
Clear selection

34. Which of the following statements is/are correct about revenue farming?

1. Lord Cornwallis introduced a system of revenue farming in the province of Bengal.

2. In this system, the European District Collectors would ‘farm’ out the right to collect revenue to the highest bidder.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

2 points
Clear selection

35. With respect to the Marathas, consider the following statements:

1. Shahu was responsible for making the office of the Peshwa hereditary in nature.

2. A campaign against the Portuguese was started under Balaji Vishwanath.

3. The first Anglo Maratha war was the result of internal struggle of power between different factions in the Marathas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

2 points
Clear selection

36.  Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Orientalists depicted India’s past in a way that was in consonance with the needs of the colonial administration.

2. Fort William College was founded by Wellesley to train the young British recruits to the Civil Service in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

37. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Sayyid Ahmad Khan?

1. Sayyid Ahmad Khan called for the study of European science and technology.

2. He formed the British Indian Association.

3. He pointed out that there was no fundamental contradiction between Quran and Natural Science.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

2 points
Clear selection

38. Consider the following statement regarding the Butler Committee:

1. It was set up in 1935 to examine relationship between state and the government.

2. It recommended for the supremacy of British paramountcy.

3. Consent of the princely state was not necessary for the governance by the Indian Government in British India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

2 points
Clear selection

39. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Princely States:

1. Narendra Mandal was set up as a consultative and advisory body on the recommendations of Morley-Minto reforms.

2. Policy of Equal Federation, as per the Government of India Act 1935, never came into existence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

40. Which of the following points posed a hurdle to the Congress during its twentyeight months of rule to completely overhaul the Indian Agrarian System?

1. Reactionary second chambers in the form of Legislative Councils.

2. Complex and complicated agrarian structure of various parts of India.

3. Lion’s share of India’s revenues was appropriated by the Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above 

2 points
Clear selection

41. With reference to the Mappila Revolt, which among the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was essentially a class struggle that ended as a communal struggle.

2. It was highly influenced by the Khilafat Movement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

2 points
Clear selection

42. The Bardoli Satyagraha was launched against

(a) Unjustified hike in land revenue by the authorities.

(b) Oppression of the thikadars in charge of revenue collection.

(c) Refusal to grant remission in land revenue by the authorities despite a drought.

(d) The systems of summary evictions and renewal fees.

2 points
Clear selection

43. The strategic debate of 1934-37 was regarding as to how to continue with mass movement after the fall out of the Civil Disobedience Movement. In this regard, consider the following statements:

1. New Swarajists, like M. A. Ansari and Bhulabhai Desai debated for Council entry and taking up Parliamentary works.

2. The Leftists demanded continuation of non-Constitutional mass movement, as its withdrawal would side track direct mass action and political work amongst the masses.

3. Jawaharlal Nehru, on the other hand, showing alienation from Gandhiji, stood against Struggle-Truce-Struggle.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

2 points
Clear selection

44. Arrange the following events that have led to the growth of communalism in India, in chronological order:

1. Separate electorate demand accepted by Congress

2. Delhi Proposal

3. Communal Award

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 1-3-2

(c) 2-1-3

(d) 2-3-1

2 points
Clear selection

45.  A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of parallel governments.

Consider the following statements regarding parallel governments:

1. Ballia in East U.P., under Chittu Pandey started Prati Sarkar.

2. Satara in Maharashtra witnessed rise of Jatiya Sarkar under Nana Patil.

3. In Tamluk, an armed Vidyut Vahini was organised.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

2 points
Clear selection

46. With respect to Article 21 consider the following statements.

1) The Supreme Court of India has described this right as the ‘heart of fundamental rights.

2) This right has been provided against the State only.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both 1 & 2

 d) None of the above

2 points
Clear selection

47. Which of the following is true about National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

1) NCBC is a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

2) The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members is determined by President.

3) The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members is determined by President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only                   b) 2 only

c) 2 & 3 only   c) All the above 

2 points
Clear selection

48. With reference to “74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1993”, consider the following statements.

1) The Nagar Panchayat can be found in those areas that are on the verge of transition from rural to urban areas

2) The Municipal Council which is responsible for urban areas that are small in area.

3) The Municipal Corporation which takes care of the large urban areas

Which of the above statement is correct?

a)1 and 3 only

b)1and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) All the above.

2 points
Clear selection

49. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect:

1) The source of the concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is the Spanish Constitution.

2) The DPSP aims at ensuring political justice to the people and establishing India as a Welfare State majority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only                  

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2           

d) All the above

2 points
Clear selection

50.Which of the following DPSP are not attributed to Liberal-Intellectual principles.

a) To provide early childhood care until 6 years of age

b) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.

c) To promote educational and economic interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections

d) To separate judiciary from the executive

2 points
Clear selection

51. Which of the following is/are the essential condition to declare a organisation as Religious Denomination?

1) Collection of Individuals having a common faith.

2) A common organization.

3) Designation by a distinctive name.

Which of the above statement is correct?

a)1 and 3 only

b)1and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All the above.

2 points
Clear selection

52. In Indian context, The basic structure theory was first introduced in which of the following cases/law?

a) Minerva Mills Case

b) Kesavananda Bharati case

c) Menaka Gandhi Case

d) Sajjan Singh case

2 points
Clear selection

53. Which of the following statement is/are correct:

1) The Doctrine of Eclipse states that any law which is inconsistent with fundamental rights is not invalid.

2) The doctrine of pith and substance has provided the Indian constitutional scheme with much-needed flexibility

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only                  

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2           

d) All the above

2 points
Clear selection

54. Which part of Indian constitution provides for Equal justice and free legal aid.

a) Part III                 

b) Part IV

c) Part IV A              

d) Preamble

2 points
Clear selection

55. Which of the following act restored legislative making powers of Bombay and Madras?

a) Indian Councils Act 1861

b) Indian Councils Act 1892

c) Charter act of 1833

d) GOI act 1858

2 points
Clear selection

56. Which of the following statement is/are true?

1) The Indian Councils Act, 1892 was the first step towards the representative government in modern India.

2) Government of India act,1858 gave recognition to the ‘portfolio system’ of Lord Canning

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) Only 1                 

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2       

d) None of the Above

2 points
Clear selection

57. Consider the following statement regarding the features of fundamental rights in Indian constitution.

1) All the rights are available against the actions of the state only.

2) all the fundamental rights can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency.

3) Only Parliament can make a law for the enforcement of the FR

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c)  3 only

d) None of the above.

2 points
Clear selection

58. Consider the following statements,

1. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

2. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Which of the above-mentioned rights is/are available to foreigners in India?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

59. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

1) Constitution declares Delhi as seat of Supreme Court.

2) Constitution also authorizes the President to determine other place or places as seat of the SC with the approval of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only                  

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2           

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

2 points
Clear selection

60. Which of the following is famously called as ‘identity card of the Constitution’?

a) The Fundamental Rights.

b) The Preamble.

c) Election commission of India.

d) Supreme Court of India.

2 points
Clear selection

61. When many companies offer competing products or services that are similar, but not perfect, substitutes is the characteristic of which of the following type of market ?

a) Perfect competition

b) Monopolistic competition

c) Oligopoly

d) Monopoly

2 points
Clear selection

62. Which of the following are the components of current account of Balance of payment?

1. External Commercial Borrowing (ECB).

2. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

3. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI).

4. Invisibles including services, transfers and income.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

2 points
Clear selection

63. Which of the following are the ways to reduce fiscal deficit in government budget?

1. Disinvestments of PSU’s. 

2. Rationalising the centrally sponsored scheme.

3. Increasing the salaries of government employees.

4. Increased domestic borrowing.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

2 points
Clear selection

64. Which of the following organisation provides grants and concessional loans to the world’s poorest countries.

a) The International Finance Corporation.

b) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

c) International Development Association (IDA)

d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

2 points
Clear selection

65. Consider the following statements:

1. Kuznets Curve is used to demonstrate that economic growth initially leads to greater inequality followed later by the reduction of inequality.

2. The Gini-coefficient is a statistical measure of inequality that describes wealth is distributed among the population of a country.

3. The Gini-coefficient is a statistical measure of inequality that describes how equal or unequal income or wealth is distributed among the population of a country.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

2 points
Clear selection

66.Which of the following may be considered as an asset to an private individual?

1. Currency held by the individual.

2. Securities held by the individual.

3. An Apartment owned by an individual.

4. vehicles owned by an individual for their own use.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only 

2 points
Clear selection
2 points
Captionless Image
Clear selection

68. What does the term Data Embassies mean?

a) Data centres established by countries or corporates outside their country or offices.

b) Data repository of each country

c) Data exchanging centre foreign countries.

d) Data storing, exchanging and processing place for each country

2 points
Clear selection

69. Operation Twist is related to which of the following?

1.Sudden change in the interest rate

2.Dealing with the market fluctuation

3.The RBI carries out OMO sales to suck out excess liquidity

4.OMO purchases to inject liquidity.

Choose the correct option:

a)1 and 2 only

b)2 and 3 only

c)3 and 4 only

d)None of the above

2 points
Clear selection

70. Mark the incorrect statement about Missile Pralay

a)India’s first conventional quasi-ballistic missile

b)It is powered with a liquid propellant rocket motor

c)The longest-range surface-to-surface missile in the inventory of the Army

d)It can be compared to China’s Dong Feng 12 and the Russian Iskander missile

2 points
Clear selection

71. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

1) Annual Financial Statements is mandated by Article 112 of the Constitution.

2) Finance Bill is laid as a money bill for taxation under Article 110 of the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only                  

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                 

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

2 points
Clear selection

72. Which of the following statements about ASSET REGISTER.

1. Asset Register is published as part of Union Budget and is mandated under FRBM Rules, 2004.

2. All assets above threshold value of Rs two lakhs are only recorded in Asset Register.

3. According to Asset Register, Total Assets of Union Government Rs. 21.42 lakh crores assets at the end 2021-22.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) All the above.

2 points
Clear selection

73. With reference PM VISHWAKARMA KAUSHAL SAMMAN (PM VIKAS), consider the following statements:

1. Objective of the scheme is to Improve quality, scale and reach of Indian Arts and Crafts.

2. The scheme has the component of Financial Support and skill-based training.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only                  

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                 

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

2 points
Clear selection

74. With reference to AMRIT DHAROHAR SCHEME, consider the following statements:

1. Scheme aims to promote mangrove plantations along the coastline and on salt pan lands

2. Conservation values of local communities will be promoted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

75. Which of the following is not correct regarding UNITY MALL recently seen in news ?

(a) States will be encouraged to set up a Unity Mall in their state capital.

(b) It is a part of Fifty-Year Interest Free Loans to States scheme of the Centre

(c) The Idea of Unity mall comes from ‘Ekta Mall’ established at the Statue of Unity.

(d) At present there are 5 Unity malls are in operation including the one at Gujarat. 

2 points
Clear selection

76. Consider the following statement with respect to – solidarity 2023

1.It is a Joint border operation of all the member countries of SCO

2.Solidarity – 2023 was organized by China

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection
2 points
Captionless Image
Clear selection

78.Identify correct statement with respect to Ramsar – convention

1.It is an intergovernmental environmental treaty to protect well and established by UNESCO in 1971

2.In India Tamil Nadu have the highest number of –wetland under this convention

3.UK have the highest number of wetland in the world

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1, 3 only

(d)All the above

2 points
Clear selection

79. Consider the following statements:

1.The first semiconductor manufacturing unit in Dholera ,Gujarat

2.The Vedanta group and the Foxconn of Taiwan have come together to build this unit

3.The semiconductor materials are made usable for electronic applications through a process called Doping.

4.Maharastra  becomes first Indian state to launch semiconductor policy 2022-27

Which of the above statements are correct about Semicon City of India?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a)  1, & 2 only

b)  1, & 3 only

c)   1,2,& 3 only

d)  All the above

2 points
Clear selection

80.Identify the correct statement with respect to lachit Borpukhan

1.He was known for the Battle of Saraighat, 1671

2.This Battle was fought between Ahom Kingdom and Mughals on the highly hilly terrain

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

81. Consider the following:

1.NASA of the US

2.Roscosmos of Russia

3.JAXA of Japan

4.Canadian Space Agency

5.The European Space Agency

Which of the above International space agencies involved in the construction of  The International Space Station ?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a)  1,2 & 3 only

b)  1,3 & 4 only

c)   1,2,3& 4 only

d)  All the above

2 points
Clear selection
2 points
Captionless Image
Clear selection

83.Clofazimine drug related to

(a)Leprosy

(b)TB

(c)Cancer

(d)HIV

2 points
Clear selection

84.B-Cells and T-cells are two type fo cells involved in

(a)Innate immunity

(b)Active immunity

(c)Passive immunity

(d)Acquired immunity

2 points
Clear selection

85.With reference to landslide Atlas of India, consider the following statements

1.Uttarkhand topped the list, recording maximum landslide events in the past 25 years

2.It is released by National Disaster management authority

Identify the correct statement

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

86.Carbon Bomb relates to

(a)Space ignition product

(b)Pollution control technology

(c)A bomb used in Russian Ukraine war

(d)An oil (or) gas project

2 points
Clear selection

87.Consider the following statement with respect to Attacama large millimeter / sub millimeter Array (ALMA)

(1)It is a thermonuclear devise

(2)It is located in the Attacama desert of Northern Chile.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

88.With reference to the Vienna convention on Diplomatic relations / consider the following statements

(1)India has signed but not ratified it

(2)As per the convention, the security of any high commission (or)Embassy is the responsibility of the host nation and diplomatic missions cannot employ their own security

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

89. Mere faith and blind faith is dangerous: It dulls the brain and makes a man reactionary are the words of

(a)V.D. Savarkar

(b)S.C. Bose

(c)Reshbehari Bose

(d)Bhagat Singh

2 points
Clear selection

90.Consider the following statements

(1)The MC Mohan line was drawn during the Shimla convention of 1914, officially described as the convention between great Britain, China and Tibet

(2)The MC Mohan line specifically represents the boundary between Arunachal Pradesh and Tibet, form Bhutan in the west to Myanmar in the east

Which of the following statement is not correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

2 points
Clear selection

91. Consider the following statements

1.Khambatki Ghat project is on Pune-Satara Highway

2.It is a three lane twin tunnels  project reduces the traffic on Mumbai-Bengaluru National Highway

Which of the above statements are correct about Khambatki Ghat project

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a)  1, only

b)  2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d)  None

2 points
Clear selection

92. The “Nine-dash Line” can be understood as

a)A newly demarcated boundary line between India and China

b)A line of demarcation between India and Pakistan

c)The line runs as far as 2,000km from the Chinese mainland that encircles as much as 90 %  of the contested waters.

d)A line of demarcation between China and Russia

2 points
Clear selection

93.Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Bhitarkanika National Park?

a)India’s second largest mangrove ecosystem in terms of area

b)The National park is inundated with waters from rivers Mahanadhi, Ajay and Suvernarekha

c)It has been designated as Ramsar site in August 2002.

d)Bhitarkanika is home to the largest congregation of the endangered Salt Water Crocodile

2 points
Clear selection

94. Arunachal Pradesh Frontier Highway connects the places of

a)Mago and Vijayanagar

b)Moreh- Kalewa roadway

c)Tawang and Siang

d)Sutarkandi and Karimganj

2 points
Clear selection

95. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Doklam issue?

a)Doklam is a disputed area between China and India

b)It is an area with a plateau and a valley

c)It is located between Tibet’s Chumbi valley to the North and  Bhutan’s Ha valley to the East

d)The Doklam plateau in western Bhutan

2 points
Clear selection

96.Consider the following statements:

1.Subansiri River flows through Miri Hills

2.Border Roads Organisation constructed the Daporijo bridge over Subansiri

3.It is the largest tributary of Brahmaputra River

4.Subansiri is also known as gold river.

Which of the above statements are incorrect about Subansiri River?

a)  1, & 2 only

b)  1, & 3 only

c)   2,& 3 only

d)  All the above

2 points
Clear selection

97.India’s First Lichen Park has been developed at

a)Chamoli

b)Munsiyari

c)Rishikesh

d)Rudra Prayag

2 points
Clear selection

98. Which one of the following regions does not fall under Pacific ring of fire?

a)Kamchatka

b)Sakhaline

c)Panhandle part of Malaysia

d)Kyushu Island 

2 points
Clear selection

99.If someone wants to reach Sevestapol in Black sea

Which of following straits and seas he should come across sequentially when he starts his journey from Mediterranean Sea

1. Bosporus strait

2. Sea of Marmara

3. Strait of Dardanelles

4. Strait of Kerch

 5. Sea of Azov

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a)  1, 2 ,3 and 4only

b)  1,2, 3 and 5 only

c)  3, 2, 1 and 5 only

d)  1,2 and 3 only

2 points
Clear selection

100. Which of the following countries are related with Nord Stream 2 Pipeline project?

a)Russia and Ukraine

b)Russia and Germany

c)Russia and Switzerland

d)Ukraine and Germany

2 points
Clear selection
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