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12.12.2025
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Q1 With reference to the Assam Accord (1985), consider the following statements:

1. The Accord recognizes 24th March 1971 as the cut-off date for detection and deportation of foreigners, but only persons who entered Assam between 1st January 1966 and 24th March 1971 are required to register under the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939.

2. Under the Accord, individuals who entered Assam before 1st January 1966 are entitled to full citizenship, including immediate voting rights.

3. Clause 6 of the Accord explicitly mandates the creation of a separate constitutional body to safeguard the cultural and linguistic identity of the Assamese people.

4.The Accord emerged after a 6-year mass movement led primarily by AASU and AAGSP demanding identification, deletion from electoral rolls, and deportation of illegal immigrants.

 Which of the statements given above are correct? 
2 points
Clear selection

With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s liquidity management operations, consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), Open Market Operations (OMOs) permanently alter the liquidity in the banking system.

2. Operation Twist, when conducted by the RBI, involves simultaneous buying and selling of government securities of different maturities without altering the net liquidity in the system.

3. When the RBI sells government securities under OMO, it increases yields on those securities and tends to attract foreign portfolio investment (FPI) into India’s debt market.

4. OMO purchases by RBI generally lead to rupee appreciation by increasing the supply of foreign currency in the domestic market.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs):

1. InvITs, like mutual funds, are registered as trusts under the SEBI Act, 1992, but unlike mutual funds, InvITs are mandatorily required to hold a minimum of 80% of their assets in completed and revenue-generating infrastructure projects.

2. Sponsors of InvITs are required to retain at least 15% of the total units of the InvIT for a minimum of three years from the date of listing.

3. InvITs can raise funds through both public and private placements, but only publicly listed InvITs are permitted to invest in under-construction infrastructure assets.

4. Income distributed by InvITs to unit holders is exempt from taxation in India under the pass-through status granted by SEBI (InvIT) Regulations, 2014.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
With reference to the Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct? Entities with more than 49% foreign investment are not eligible to apply under the scheme.

1. The scheme allows funding support only to incubated startups that are less than three years old.

2. The maximum permissible funding can be up to 90% of the total project cost for eligible entities.

3. Startups that have previously received grants from any government scheme for a similar technology are not eligible under TDF.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) and related regulatory mechanisms in India:

A. The transfer of unclaimed dividends and shares to the IEPF after seven years is a statutory requirement under the Companies Act, 2013.
 B. Unlike SEBI’s Investor Protection and Education Fund, the IEPF is empowered to refund unclaimed matured deposits and debentures to investors.
 C. Both the IEPFA and SEBI’s Investor Protection Fund are administered under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
 D. Deposits accepted by NBFCs that remain unclaimed for seven years are also transferred to the IEPF.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Options
2 points
Clear selection

Q.6 With reference to India’s edible oil self-reliance strategy, consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):

Assertion (A):

The National Mission on Edible Oils–Oilseeds (NMEO–OS) aims to raise primary oilseed production significantly by 2030–31, partly through bringing rice and potato fallow lands under oilseed cultivation.

Reason (R):

Fallow lands form a major portion of India’s gross cropped area, but they do not enhance the net sown area, making them suitable for area expansion without affecting existing crop cycles.

Which one of the following is correct?
2 points
Clear selection

With reference to UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Committee for Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage under the 2003 Convention, consider the following statements:

1. The Committee prepares draft plans for the use of the Intangible Cultural Heritage Fund, whereas in India, financial assistance for safeguarding ICH is channelled through schemes operated by bodies such as the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

2. Unlike the Committee, which has geographical representation criteria for membership, India’s Zonal Cultural Centres (ZCCs) have no statutory requirement ensuring regional representation.

3. National institutions such as the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM) can directly nominate cultural elements for inscription on UNESCO’s ICH Lists.

4. The Committee drafts operational directives for ICH safeguarding, similar to the mandate provided under India’s Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, which governs intangible heritage conservation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
In the context of Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) events, consider the following statements: Upward-propagating Rossby waves weaken the polar vortex by reversing the westerly winds in the stratosphere.

1. Splitting of the polar vortex during SSW can increase the likelihood of cold air outbreaks in mid-latitudes.

2. Every SSW leads to surface warming in the regions affected by the disturbed vortex.

 How many of the above statements are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
With reference to the Hoolock Gibbon in India, which of the following pairs are correctly matched? List – I (Feature) | List – II (Correct Description)

A. Only ape found in India → 1. Western Hoolock Gibbon (Endangered)
 B. Highest population in India → 2. Found in Indo-Burma Biodiversity Hotspot
 C. Conservation status → 3. Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary
 D. Geographic distribution → 4. Eastern Hoolock east of the Dibang River

Select the correct answer using the code below: *
2 points

With reference to India’s Digital Address ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. DHRUVA applies a consent-based data-sharing model similar to DEPA, without creating a centralized address repository.

2. DIGIPIN provides a 10-character geocoded address for 4m × 4m grids and is designed as a supplement rather than a replacement for the traditional PIN system.

3. Aadhaar and DHRUVA are both Digital Public Infrastructures, but only Aadhaar is identity-linked while DHRUVA provides service-level address identity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

With reference to Tensor Processing Units (TPUs), consider the following statements:

1. TPUs use systolic array architecture, enabling high-speed matrix operations for deep learning.

2. TPUs are limited to inference and cannot be used for training neural networks.

3. India’s MeghRaj (GI Cloud) policy mandates deployment of AI-specific hardware such as TPUs in government cloud infrastructure.

4. The Digital India Act (Draft Framework) identifies high-performance AI compute (including accelerators like TPUs) as critical digital infrastructure.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
With reference to the Centre for Chronic Disease Control (CCDC), consider the following:

1. Being a WHO Collaborating Centre, CCDC must be a government-owned institution.
 2. Recognition as a SIRO by DSIR allows CCDC to access certain fiscal exemptions for research.
 3. Its major research domains fall within WHO’s classification of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs).

How many of the above statements are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
AstroSat has recently been in news due to new findings from its UVIT instrument.

A student makes the following claims while comparing AstroSat with global astronomy missions. Which of the claims is/are valid?**

Claim A:
 "AstroSat is unique because no other major observatory, including NASA’s Chandra or ESA’s XMM-Newton, provides simultaneous coverage across UV, optical, soft and hard X-ray bands."

Claim B:
 "UVIT’s angular resolution surpasses the UV imaging capability of the Hubble Space Telescope."

Claim C:
 "The Scanning Sky Monitor of AstroSat performs a role analogous to NASA’s RXTE All-Sky Monitor, i.e., detecting short-lived X-ray transients."

Claim D:
 "AstroSat is operated by the same ground segment that handled India’s deep-space missions such as MOM, because both fall under ISTRAC."

Select the correct answer:
2 points
Clear selection
Claim 1:

NATGRID, unlike NCRB, does not function as a data-storage repository but acts as a real-time access platform connecting multiple government and private databases for authorised agencies.

Claim 2:

According to the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), NATGRID was envisaged as the key data-fusion component supporting the proposed National Counter Terrorism Centre (NCTC).

Claim 3:

Only central intelligence agencies have access to NATGRID; state police officers are not permitted under the current access framework.

Claim 4:

NATGRID’s operational mandate includes integrating immigration, financial, and telecom datasets and applying Big Data analytics to generate intelligence trails.

Which of the above claims are correct? 
2 points
Clear selection
Assertion (A):

The India International Science Festival (IISF) 2025 theme “Vigyan Se Samruddhi: for Aatmanirbhar Bharat” is consistent with India’s long-term scientific policy frameworks aimed at national self-reliance.

Reason (R):

The Scientific Policy Resolution of 1958 and subsequent national S&T policies emphasised using science and indigenous knowledge systems for economic prosperity and technological independence.

Which of the following is correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Consider the following statements regarding strategic airlift capability of India: The C-130J Super Hercules is capable of Short Take-Off and Landing (STOL) from unprepared runways, which allows it to support forward airfields where larger strategic airlifters like the C-17 Globemaster III cannot operate.

Unlike the C-17, the C-130J requires only a three-member crew due to its advanced digital avionics and automation systems.

Both C-130J and C-17 operated by the Indian Air Force are powered by turboprop engines, which enhances their low-speed maneuverability for airdrop missions.

The C-130J operated by India is equipped with an Infrared Detection Set enabling low-level precision flying and landing during blackout conditions, a capability not available on the older An-32 fleet.

How many of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
With reference to the National Song Vande Mataram and Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, consider the following statements: 
1. Vande Mataram was originally written in Bengali inside the novel Anand Math and later rendered in Sanskrit.

2. Only the first two stanzas of Vande Mataram were adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1950.

3. Anand Math is based on the Sannyasi Rebellion, recognized in NCERTs as an early anti-colonial resistance movement.

4. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was among the first two graduates of the University of Calcutta.

Which of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection

Consider the following statements regarding civil aviation regulation in India:

1. DGCA, and not BCAS, is the authority responsible for aviation security standards under India’s ICAO obligations.

2. DGCA issues Air Operator Certificates (AOC) under the Aircraft Act, 1934 and Aircraft Rules, 1937.

3. Development of new air traffic control technologies is solely the responsibility of the Airports Authority of India (AAI), with no regulatory role for DGCA.

4. DGCA is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation and coordinates India’s compliance with ICAO.

Which of the above statements are correct?

2 points
Clear selection
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