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27.02.2026
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Q1. With reference to Electoral Trusts in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Electoral Trusts are governed by the Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013 and relevant
provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
2. Electoral Trusts are required to distribute at least 95% of the total contributions received
in a financial year to eligible political parties.
3. Donations exceeding ₹20,000 received by Electoral Trusts must be disclosed to the
Election Commission of India (ECI).
4. The allocation made by an Electoral Trust to each specific political party is mandatorily
disclosed in the public domain by the ECI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q2. With reference to Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes
(DNTs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The communities now referred to as Denotified Tribes were originally notified under the
Criminal Tribes Act, 1871, which was repealed after Independence.
2. The 1931 Census was the last Census to enumerate such communities as distinct
categories.
3. The Idate Commission (2014–17) found that all identified DNT communities were
already classified under either SC, ST or OBC categories.
4. The Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) is implemented by the
Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q3. With reference to wheat cultivation in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Wheat is primarily a Kharif crop in India and requires high temperature and heavy rainfall
during its growing season.
2. India is the world’s largest producer of wheat and accounts for more than one-fifth of
global wheat output.
3. Wheat requires cool and moist weather during vegetative growth followed by dry and
warm conditions during the ripening stage.
4. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab are among the leading wheat-producing
States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q4. With reference to the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) announced in the
Union Budget 2025–26, consider the following statements:

1. The Urban Challenge Fund provides financial assistance for projects related to urban
redevelopment, water supply and sanitation, and strengthening cities as economic
growth hubs.
2. Under the funding structure of UCF, the Union Government finances up to 50% of the
total project cost, while States mobilize the remaining funds.
3. At least half of the total project financing under UCF must be mobilized through market-
based instruments such as municipal bonds, bank loans, or Public–Private Partnerships
(PPPs).
4. The emphasis on municipal bond financing under UCF is consistent with the
constitutional empowerment of Urban Local Bodies under Part IXA of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q5. With reference to Front-of-Pack (FoP) Labelling and the Food Safety
and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), consider the following
statements:
1. FSSAI is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006,
functioning under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidates various food-related laws and
empowers FSSAI to regulate manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import of food
to ensure food safety.
3. The Draft Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Amendment Regulations,
2025 sought to introduce provisions relating to nutrition information, including Front-of-
Pack labelling.
4. The Food Authority under FSSAI consists of a Chairperson and 22 members, all of
whom are nominated exclusively by the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q6. With reference to the Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) framework in
India’s digital lending ecosystem, consider the following pairs:

Term Description

1. Regulated Entity (RE) An entity regulated by the Reserve Bank of India such as a bank

or NBFC

2. Default Loss Guarantee
(DLG)

Arrangement where entire credit risk of a loan portfolio is
transferred to a fintech partner

3. DLG Cap Maximum guarantee limited to 5% of the specified loan portfolio
4. Eligible DLG Provider Any unregulated individual providing informal guarantee support
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
2 points
Clear selection
Q7. With reference to the recent regulatory changes regarding bank
financing of corporate acquisitions in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Banks are permitted to finance up to 75% of the acquisition value for purchasing both
listed and unlisted companies.
2. The overall ceiling on such acquisition financing by a bank is capped at 20% of its
eligible capital base.
3. Acquisition financing can be extended only through purchase of equity shares and not
through convertible instruments.
4. In an acquisition, the acquired company necessarily ceases to exist as a separate legal
entity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q8. With reference to India’s power sector, consider the following statements:
1. Non-fossil fuel installed capacity in India includes nuclear energy as well as renewable
energy sources.
2. As per recent data, non-fossil fuel capacity constitutes more than 50% of India’s total
installed power generation capacity.
3. India has committed under its updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to
achieve 50% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q9. With reference to the Programmable Digital Rupee (e₹) and Central
Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Digital Rupee is a legal tender and a liability of the Reserve Bank of India, reflected
on its balance sheet under the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934.
2. Programmable CBDC can be designed to ensure that government benefits are used
only for specified purposes, such as purchase of foodgrains at Fair Price Shops.

3. Unlike Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions, retail CBDC transactions do not
require involvement of commercial banks in any capacity.
4. The pilot of Digital Rupee in India began with both wholesale and retail segments in
December 2022.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q10. With reference to Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and its expanding role in India’s digital
economy, consider the following statements:
1. India accounts for nearly half of the world’s instant payment transactions by volume.
2. UPI transactions are settled through the Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system
operated by the Reserve Bank of India.
3. UPI Lite is designed to facilitate low-value transactions without requiring real-time bank
authentication for every transaction.
4. Integration of UPI with Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) can enhance fiscal efficiency by
reducing leakages in subsidy delivery.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q11. With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECB)
framework as recently amended by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under
the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, consider the following
statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India derives its powers to regulate ECBs from the Foreign
Exchange Management Act, 1999.
2. Under the amended ECB framework, any non-individual resident entity incorporated
under a Central or State Act is eligible to raise ECB, subject to statutory permissions.
3. The minimum average maturity period for all sectors has been uniformly fixed at three
years without exception.
4. ECB raised from a related party must comply with the arm’s length principle.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q12. With reference to the G4 grouping and reforms of the United Nations
Security Council (UNSC), consider the following statements:
1. The G4 grouping demands expansion of the UNSC in both permanent and non-
permanent categories of membership.
2. The amendment of the UN Charter to expand the UNSC requires ratification by two-
thirds of the UN General Assembly members including all permanent members of the
UNSC.
3. Under the present UN Charter, the number of non-permanent members of the UNSC
can be increased without amending the Charter.
4. The G4 grouping supports greater representation of developing regions, particularly
Africa, Latin America, and Asia, in an expanded UNSC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q13. With reference to the United Nations Office for Disarmament Affairs (UNODA),
consider the following statements:
1. It was established in 1998 by the UN Secretary-General as the Department for
Disarmament Affairs.
2. It functions under the United Nations General Assembly and supports the Conference on
Disarmament.
3. Its mandate includes promoting the complete elimination of weapons of mass
destruction and regulating conventional arms.
4. It serves as the implementing body of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
verification mechanism.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q14. (UPSC Prelims Pattern – Statement-Based, Multi-Correct Type)
With reference to the contemporary challenges faced by the World Trade Organization (WTO)
and reforms proposed for the global trading system, consider the following statements:
1. The WTO’s Appellate Body has been non-functional since December 2019, affecting the
enforceability of rulings under its two-tier dispute settlement mechanism.
2. The Doha Development Agenda was concluded successfully with binding commitments
on agricultural subsidies and Special & Differential (S&D) treatment.

3. WTO decision-making is based on consensus among its 166 members.
4. Plurilateral agreements within the WTO framework may proceed without participation of
all members, but must remain consistent with multilateral principles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q15. With reference to recent developments in India–France relations,
consider the following statements:
1. The India–France Strategic Partnership, established in 1998, was India’s first strategic
partnership with a Western nation.
2. The Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range (HAMMER) is a smart precision-
guided air-to-ground weapon system adaptable for both Rafale and LCA Tejas aircraft.
3. The H125 helicopter, whose Final Assembly Line was inaugurated at Vemagal,
Karnataka, is a twin-engine heavy-lift helicopter designed exclusively for high-altitude
military logistics.
4. The Horizon 2047 Roadmap, adopted in 2023, aims to guide India–France relations for
the next 25 years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q16. With reference to the phenomenon of “Break in the South-West
Monsoon” in India, consider the following statements:
1. A break in the monsoon is characterised by a significant reduction or cessation of rainfall
over the Indo-Gangetic plains while heavy rainfall may continue over the Himalayan
foothills.
2. The northward shift of the monsoon trough towards the Himalayan foothills is one of the
primary synoptic conditions responsible for monsoon breaks.
3. During a monsoon break, the west coast of India invariably experiences enhanced
rainfall due to strengthening of offshore troughs.
4. The frequency and duration of monsoon breaks can significantly affect Kharif crop
productivity, particularly in rain-fed regions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q17. With reference to the life cycle of stars, consider the following
statements:
1. A protostar becomes a main-sequence star only after the onset of sustained hydrogen
fusion in its core.
2. Elements heavier than iron are formed during the main-sequence phase of massive
stars.
3. A planetary nebula is formed only in the evolutionary pathway of low-mass stars.
4. The formation of either a neutron star or a black hole depends primarily on the initial
mass of the progenitor star.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q18. With reference to the “Snowball Earth” hypothesis, consider the
following statements:
1. The major Snowball Earth events occurred during the Cryogenian Period of the
Neoproterozoic Era.
2. The albedo effect acted as a positive feedback mechanism, reinforcing global cooling
during these glaciations.
3. The termination of Snowball Earth episodes is associated with massive volcanic CO₂
accumulation due to suppressed silicate weathering.
4. Evidence of Snowball Earth includes glacial deposits found exclusively in high-latitude
regions of the present-day continents.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q19. With reference to the Cheer Pheasant (Catreus wallichii), consider the
following statements:
1. It is endemic to India and is restricted to the Western Himalayan region.
2. It is primarily associated with mid-montane grasslands, often in proximity to Chir Pine
forests.
3. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and included in Appendix I of CITES.
4. Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, it is provided the highest level of legal
protection.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
Q20. With reference to the Malabar Pied Hornbill (Anthracoceros
coronatus) and the concept of “Hornbill Restaurants”, consider the
following statements:
1. The Malabar Pied Hornbill is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and is found in the
Western Ghats, northeastern Himalayan foothills, Satpura Hills and Sri Lanka.
2. “Hornbill Restaurants” refer to natural clusters of fruit-bearing trees that play a crucial
role in maintaining keystone seed dispersers in tropical forests.
3. The Malabar Pied Hornbill is currently listed as “Vulnerable” under the IUCN Red List.
4. Being primarily frugivorous, hornbills contribute significantly to long-distance seed
dispersal in tropical ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 points
Clear selection
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