9. A 43-year-old woman is evaluated during an initial visit. She has brought with her a written list of health problems, including headaches, muscle pain and weakness, abdominal pain, diarrhea, sinusitis, and frequent urinary tract infection. She also reports problems with sexual intimacy. For the past 4 years, her health problems have interfered with her ability to work. Previous treatments for headache have included venlafaxine, verapamil, propranolol, and gabapentin. For each of these, she reports no relief or an intolerance to the medication. Previous evaluation by a neurologist, gastroenterologist, and rheumatologist yielded no diagnosis of her medical problems. Previous laboratory studies, including complete blood count; erythrocyte sedimentation rate; serum B-12/folate, electrolyte, creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels; liver chemistry tests; serum lipid panel; serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays; heterophile antibody testing; and urinalysis, were normal. Results of MRI of the head, colonoscopy, and CT of the abdomen were negative. She has not had any tick exposures or bites nor any memory of experiencing an expanding red rash. The patient describes health problems in response to each portion of the general review of systems. When she is asked if she feels depressed, she becomes visibly angry. The physical examination, including vital signs, is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient? *