SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER -2023-24

CLASS – X CBSE

SCIENCE (SUBJECT CODE – 086)

Max. Marks: 80                                                                Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions:  

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

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Section  - A

Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20. There is no negative marks for incorrect response.

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SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER -2023-24

CLASS – X CBSE

MATHEMATICS

MAXIMUM MARKS : 80                                                        TIME : 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This question paper has 5 sections A – E
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 2 marks each
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 3 marks each
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 5 marks each
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (4 marks each) with sub parts of the values of 1, 2, 1 marks each respectively.
7. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 questions of 5 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 2 questions of 2 marks has been provided.

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SECTION A

(This section consists of 20 questions of one mark each)

1. The number of solutions for the equations 2x + 3y = 15 and 5x – y = 10 are

1. Infinitely many        (b) One                (c) Two                (d) No solution

2. If the first two terms of an AP are – 3 and 4 respectively, then its 21st term is

1. 127                        (b) 137                        (c) 143                        (d) – 143

3. The co-ordinates of mid point of the line joining the points ( - 7, - 4) and ( 1, 6 ) are

1. (3, 1)                         (b) ( - 3, 1 )                (c) ( - 3, - 1)                (d) (3, -1)

4. The value of the discriminant of the quadratic equation x2 + 12x + 11 is

1. + 10                (b) – 10                (c) ± 10                (d) 100

5. The probability of getting a red even card from a deck of 52 playing cards is

1. 5/26                (b) 5/13                (c) ½                (d) 0

6. If the area of a sector of a circle is 7/20 of the area of the circle, then the sector angle is

1. 110⁰                (b) 130⁰                        (c) 100⁰                        (d) 126⁰

7. If three points (0, 0), (3, ) and (3, m) form an equilateral triangle, then the value of m is

1. 2                        (b) – 3                        (c) – 4                        (d) None

8. If the lines 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y = 1 are parallel, then the value of k is

1. – 5/4                (b) 2/5                        (c) 15/4                        (d) 3/2

9. If one zero of a polynomial 3x2 + 8x + k is the reciprocal of the other, then the value of k is

1. 3                        (b) – 3                        (c) 1/3                        (d) – 1/3

10. The solutions of x2 + 10x + 16 = 0 are

1. – 2, 8                (b) 2, - 8                (c) - 2, - 8                (d) 2, 8

11. 360 can be expressed as a product of its prime factors as

1. 23 x 32 x 5                (b) 22 x 33 x 5                (c) 23 x 32 x 6                (d) 22 x 32 x 6

12. If the median and mode of a data 36 and 42 respectively, then the mean of the data is

1. 11                        (b) 22                        (c) 33                        (d) 44

13. If O is centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and the tangent PR at P makes an angle of 50⁰ with PQ, then ʟ POQ is

1. 50⁰                        (b) 130⁰                        (c) 100⁰                        (d) 110⁰

14. The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is

1. 1 : 2                (b) 2 : 1                        (c) 9 : 16                (d) 16 : 9

15. The tops of two poles of heights 20 m and 14 m are connected with wire.  If the wire makes an angle of 30⁰ with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is

1. 10 m                (b) 12 m                (c) 14 m                 (d) 16 m

16. A polynomial whose zeroes are -5 and 3 is

1. x2 – 5x + 3                (b) x2 + 5x - 3                (c) x2 – 2x – 15                (d) x2 + 2x – 15

17. If Δ ABC ~Δ DFE and if AC = 8 cm, DF = 7.5 cm, AB = 5 cm, then DE is

1. 10 cm                (b) 10.5 cm                (c) 12 cm                (d) 12.5 cm

18. The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 10.5 cm subtending an angle of 60⁰ at the centre is

1. 30 cm                (b) 31 cm                (c) 32 cm                (d) 33 cm

19. If sin α = ½ and cos β = ½, then the value of α + β is

1. 30⁰                        (b) 45⁰                        (c) 60⁰                        (d) 90⁰

20. The probability of getting 53 Sundays in a leap year selected at random is

1. 1 / 7                (b) 2 / 7                        (c) 53 / 365                (d) 0

SECTION B

(This section consists of 5 questions of two marks each)

21. In Δ ABC, if DE || BC, such that AD = (7x – 4) cm, AE = (5x – 2) cm, DB = (3x + 4) cm and EC = 3x cm, then find the value of x.

OR

D is a point on BC of Δ ABC such that ʟ ADC = ʟ BAC. Prove that CA2 = CB x CD.

22. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.
23. How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250?

OR

Find the sum of the AP … up to 11 terms.

24. Find the value of y if the point (23/5, y) divides the line segment joining the points (5, 7) and (4, 5) in the ratio 2 : 3.
25. A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner surface area of the vessel.

SECTION C

(This section consists of 6 questions of three marks each)

26. Prove that  is an irrational number.
27. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree on the opposite bank is 60⁰. When he moves 30 m away from the bank, the angle of elevation becomes 30⁰. Find the height of the tree and the width of the river. ( = 1.732)
28. A two digits number is such that the product of its digits is 35. When 18 is added to the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the original number.

OR

One year ago, father was 8 times as old as his son. Now, his age is equal to the square of his son’s age. Find their present ages.

29. Prove that .
30. The following table gives production yield per hectare of wheat of 100 farms of a village. Find the median production yield per hectare.

31. Find the area of minor segment of a circle of radius 14 cm when the central angle is 60⁰. Also find the area of the corresponding major segment.

OR

In a circle of radius 10 cm, a chord subtends right angle at the centre. Find

1. Area of the minor sector        (b) Area of minor segment

SECTION D

(This section consists of 4 questions of five marks each)

32. Prove that  = 2 sec A.

OR

Prove that  .

33. Solve the pair of equations 2x – y + 2 = 0 and 2x + y – 6 = 0 graphically. Also mention the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines with the x axis and find the area of that triangle.
34. The sum of first n, 2n, 3n terms of an AP are S1, S2 and S3 respectively. Prove that S3 = 3 (S2 – S1).

OR

360 bricks are stacked in the following manner; 30 bricks in the bottom row, 29 bricks in the next row, 28 bricks in the next row and so on. In how many rows all the bricks are placed and how many bricks are there in the top row?

35. Find the mean by step deviation method and also the mode of the following data

SECTION E

(This section consists of 3 Case Studies of four marks each)

36. Radio towers are used for transmitting a range of communication services including radio and television. The tower will either act as an antenna itself or support one or more antennas on its structure including microwave dishes. There are 2 main types : guyed and self supporting structures. On a similar concept a radio station tower was built in two sections, X & Y which is supported by wires from point O as shown in the figure. Distance between the base of the tower and point O is 36 m and the angle of elevation of top of section Y from O is 30⁰. The angle of elevation of top of section X is 45⁰.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions

1. What is the height of section Y?                                                        (1M)
2. What is the height of section X?                                                        ( 2 M )
3. What is the length of wire structure from O to the top of section X?                        ( 1 M )

37. The taxi charges in a city consists of a fixed charge together with the charge for the distance covered. For a distance of 10 km, the charge paid is Rs.105/- and for a journey of 15 km, the charge paid is Rs.155/-.

Based on the above information answer the following questions

1. Find the algebraic representation of first condition.                                        (1M)
2. Find the algebraic representation of the second condition.                                (1M)
3. Find the fixed charges.                                                                        (2M)

38. In a sweet shop, the sweet maker made sweet in a tray of size 100 cm x 50 cm. He decided to cut the sweets as shown in the figure. He cut 10 parts in length and breadth. The height of the sweet is 5 cm.

Based on the above information answer the following questions

4. What is the volume of each sweet part?                                                (1M)
5. What is the total surface area of each sweet part?                                        (2M)
6. What is the volume of sweets of a single row in 100 cm length?                        (1M)

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER -2023-24

CLASS – X CBSE

SOCIAL SCIENCE

SECTION -A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each

1. While teaching, Miss Suchi asked her students about the first book printed by Gutenberg press. Here, Suchi is referring to ……….                                                                                   M-1

1. Diamond Sutra        b)Chapbooks                 c)Bible                d)Almanac

2. What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna Select the appropriate option.                   M-1

I. To establish socialism in Europe.                II. To introduce democracy in France.

III. To re-establish peace and stability in Europe

IV. To set up new parliament in Australia

Codes

a) Only I        b) Both I and II                c) Only III        d) Both III and IV

3. In 1860, the artist Lorenz Clasen was commissioned to paint this image. The inscription on Germania’s sword reads. “The German sword protects the German Rhine.”                

Which of the following options best signifies the idea behind this image?  Identify.                   M-1

a) It was response to French sabre rattling about recapturing French across the Rhine,

b) It was used as an example of classical themes for political reasons in 19thcentury Germany.

c) It signifies the readiness to fight.                d) Both (a) and (b)

4. With the advent of nationalism, who created the image of Bharat Mata in the 20thcentury?           M-1

a) Nand Lal Bose                        b) Abanindranath Tagore        

c)Rabindranath Tagore                d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

5. Which of the following is true for geothermal energy                                                   M-1

a) Experimental projects are set up in Puga Valley Ladakh.

b) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan have small reserves of it.

c) Itdevelops in regions where there is low temperature.

d) They are good sources for exhaustible conventional fuels.

6. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.                                                               M-1

* It grows well on sandy soil and shallow black soils

*It is majority grown in Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana

a) Bajra                b) Wheat        c) Rice                d) Soybean

7. Cotton thrives in soil that has good drainage and can hold water. The cotton plant suffers from excessive wetness and waterlogging…. Is appropriate for the growth of cotton because it has a high clay content and a good capacity to retain water.                                                               M-1

a) Black soil                b) Red soil        c) Alluvial soil        d) Saline soil

8. Which of the following is an important measure to ensure sustained quality of life?                    M-1

a) Planned use of resources                b) Limited use of resources        

c) Regeneration of resources                d) Accumulation of resources

9. While giving a presentation, the water board chairman of Gorakhpur listed down some appropriate reasons for water being considered as a renewable resource. As per your knowledge, which of the following statements were used by him in the respective seminal?                                               M-1

a) 3/4 the of the Earth is covered with water.

b) large amount of freshwater is stored as groundwater.

c) Existence of a hydrological cycle on the Earth

d) It is available everywhere on the Earth

10. Which of the following options define the exclusive Economic Zone?                                   M-1

a) A coastal region of a country                b) A submarine mountain

c) An area of the sea in which a sovereign state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resourcesd) None of the above

11. Read the given data which gives the estimate of reserves of crude oil.                                   M-1

Select the correct option which defines how it is essential for the development process of a country

a) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more

b) Crude oil is the major source of energy for agricultural and industrial development.

c) If prices of crude oil increase, then this becomes a burden for all.

d) Middle East and USA may face energy crises in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.

12. For a healthy adult, the Body Mass Index should be in the range of which of the following?         M-1

a) 11.51 – 18                b) 18.5 – 24.9                c) 25 – 30                d) None of these

13. If the population of India in 2019 was around 1.36 trillion. Calculate the per capita of India and choose the correct option from the following                                                                       M-1

a)$1000                b) $ 2000                c) $ 2500                d) $ 3000

14. There are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R) Mark your answer as per the codes given below.                                                                                                       M-1

(1) Assertion (A) Leela works five days a week receives her salary on the last day of each month and gets medical benefits from her firm.

Reason(R) Leela is working in an organised sector.

Codes

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false                d) A is false, but R is true

15. Suppose you are a native craftsman working in the smalltown of Odisha. What would be your top priority in the developmental goal. Identify from the given options.                                    M-1

a) More days of work and better wages                b) More demand for local and hand made goods

c) Expansion of rural economy                        d) All of the above

16. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Mark your answer as per the codes given below.                                                                                          M-1

Assertion (A)In Tamil Nadu, 90 percent of the people living in rural areas uses a ration shops, Whereas in west Bengal only 35 per cent people do so.

Reason(R)Availability of good health and educational facilities to a large extent depend on public facilities and ration shops are one of them

Codes

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false                d) A is false, but R is true

17. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason (R) Mark your answer as per the codes given below (1)                                                                                           M-1

Assertion (A) Belgium managed to accommodate its diversities

Reason(R) It took care of the Interests of both French and Dutch speaking communities

Codes

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true, but R is false                d) A is false, but R is true

18. Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government?                                   M-1

a) Democratic government is a legitimate government.

b) Democratic government is a responsive government.

c) Democratic government is the people’s own government.

d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

19. Arrange the following in a chronological order.                                                           M-1

 I.  Formation of Indian National Congress

II.Formation of Communist Party of India

III.Formation of Aam Aadmi Party

IV.Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party

Codes

a) I, III, II, IV           b) IV, I, III,  II               c) I,  II,  IV,  III        d) I,  III,  IV,  II

20. Which of the following helps the local government to deepen democracy in India?                       M-1

Statement  I    Constitutional status for local- self-government.

Statement II   It inculcates habit of democratic participation.

Statement IIIParliamentary bills for the local self-government.

Codes

a) Only statement I is right                b) Only statement II is right        

c)Only statement III is right                d) Only statement I and II are right

SECTION – B

Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each

21. Study the map thoroughly and explain why this Indian plateau is considered as a storehouse of minerals.                                                                                                    M-2

22. What was the effect of boycott movement on ‘Foreign textile trade’?                                   M-2
23. Why has India adopted a multi-party system?                                                           M-2

Or

Name the Institution which has passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational elections and file their income tax return                                                   M-2

24. Sara is an Indian woman who is discriminated against or disadvantaged in the country. Mention any one aspect of life in which you as Sara feel discriminated against or disadvantaged in the country.                                                                                                                                                      M-2

SECTION –C

Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each

25. Analyse the table given below and answer the following question.                                   M-1+2=3

a) What is the basic conclusion you can draw from the following table?

b) In India, the share of agriculture in GDP has declined at a very fast rate in recent years. What is the reason behind this?

26. What was the main objective of the Simon Commission? Why was the commission rejected by the Indians? Discuss                                                                                   M-1+2=3

Or.   Explain the effects of ‘worldwide economic depression’ on India. Towards

 late 1920s                                                                                                     M-3

27. What is community government? Explain the concept of community government with context to Belgium.                                                                                                 M-1.5=1.5
28. “Traditional harvesting system is a useful system to conserve and store water” Highlight the importance of this system with two examples.                                                               M-3
29. What is the importance of opposition party in a democracy?                                                           M-3

SECTION – D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

30. Sohini has formed a Self-Help Group in her village with some other women of her village. What is the idea behind the formation of Self-Help Groups or SHGS? Explain the functioning of the SHGS? functioning                                                                                                            M-1+4

Or.   Is there any need to expand formal sources of credit in India? If yes then why?                     M-5

31. Define the term democracy. What outcomes are expected from a democracy?                           M-1+4

Or.   Evidence shows that in practice, many democracies did not fulfil the expectations of producing economic develop in the country. Validate the statement with the help of relevant examples.        M-5

32. Classify and describe the Indian roads according to their capacity in a comprehensive manner.    M-5

Or.   Explain the importance of railway as a means of transport

33. Explain how did the ideas of national unity in early 19th century Europe allied to the ideology of liberalism. Explain.                                                                                                   M-5

Or.   How did the revolutionaries spread their ideas in many European states after 1815. Explain briefly with the support of examples.                                                                                           M-5

SECTION – E

Section E consists of 3case-based question of 4 marks each.

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.

Since India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population in the world, these two nations became prime targets for poaching and illegal trading. Project Tige, one of the well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world was launched in 1973.

Tiger conservation has been viewed not only an effort to save an endangered species, but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude.

Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sundarbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Keralaare some of the tiger reserves of India.

1. Why did India and Nepal become prime targets for poaching?                                       M-1
2. In your view, why was the tiger chosen to be protected under a project?                               M-2
3. Instead of conservation of one species, why has the focus shifted to        M-1

preservation of biodiversity?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors could be on the basis of who owns assets and is responsible for the delivery of services. In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services. In the private sector; ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals or companies.

Railways or post office is an example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned. Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits. To get such services we have to pay money to these individuals and companies.

The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profits. Governments raise money through taxes and other ways to meet expenses on the services rendered by it,

Modern day governments spend on a whole range of activities. There are several things needed by the society as a whole but which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost.

          I) On what basis the bifurcation of public and private sector takes place?                                           M-1

          II) Define the reason behind counting the railways and post office as a public sector                      M-1

          III) Why Public sector is needed in our country?                                                               M-2

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the nation of swaraj. For Plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859. Plantation workers were not permitted to leave. the tea gardens without permission, and in fact they were rarely given such permission. When they heard of the Non-cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities left the Plantations and headed home.

They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own villages. They however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they werecaught by the police and brutally beaten up. The visions of these movements were not defined by the Congress programme. They interpreted the term swaraj in their own ways. Imagining it to be a time when all suffering and all troubles would be over. Yet when the tribals chanted Gandhi’s name and raised slogans demanding Swatantra Bharat. They were also emotionally relating to an all-India agitation.

When they acted in the name Mahatma Gandhi. Or linked their movement to that of the Congress, they were identifying with a movement which went beyond the limits of their immediate locality.

I)What was the motive of the Non-Cooperation Movement? What did freedom mean for the    plantation workers in Assam?                                                                                       M-1+1

II) What positive impact was laid by the Non-Cooperation Movement?                                       M-2

SECTION – F

Section F consists of Map based question of 5 marks each.

37. a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.                                                                           M-2

A. The location of Indian National Congress session of 1927.

      B. The place where the civil Disobedience Movement started

b) On the same political map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.                                                                                                           M-3        i) Namrup Thermal Power Plant

ii) Kandla port

iii) Tungabhadra Dam

iv) Raja Sansi International Airport

ALL THE BEST