Articles on “Sexual Immorality” or “Fornication”
As I continued my research into the actual Greek meaning of the words "fornication" and "sexual immorality," I found many others coming to the exact same conclusions when they made a deep dive study into the actual Greek language and cultural context. Here are just a few examples:
Modern dictionaries tend to reflect popular usage today. However, Πορνεία (Pornea) means "acting as a prostitute" (to put it politely).
Source: Yahoo Answers.
In the video, What does fornication mean in the Bible; Latin Greek and Hebrew origin (at: https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=UVAI2TTOcgM ), the author argues that the word fornication has been corrupted by early Catholic Church Fathers that wrongly interpreted it to mean any sex before marriage. The author then appeals to the Old Testament to find the true definition of fornication and we learn the in the Old Testament fornication never means sex before marriage between consenting adults. Below is further notes from the video:
Thorsupremecommander | July 11, 2008
Do you really know what God says about fornication? Or maybe you only think you know. If you are an English speaker it is nearly impossible for you to discover its Biblical meaning.
Why? Because the English word fornication is directly derived from the Latin word "fornicatio" which has changed its meaning thanks to early church fathers and theologians.
This clip is about fornication and its meaning in the Bible.
I bet you think that fornication means premarital sex. But the original meaning of it is "slightly" different. Items listed in video: 3,4,5,6,7,8,9 stay in relation with pagan rites of fertility goddesses, though they're not limited to it.
So called church fathers twisted meanings of every single word related with sexuality. For them even sex between husband and wife was considered as "marital fornication". This term was in use for nearly 1700 years in christian doctrine, especially in Catholic and Protestant churches. They even forged and falsified the Word of God (the Bible) to support their teachings. About a 100 years ago this term was refuted by third-way reformation churches like pentecostals. From this moment some of marriage dignity has been restored, through dismissing fornication from marriage. But the false term in other areas still remains in our consciousness and includes contraceptives, allowed positions, forms (like oralism) etc.
You should realize that the [Catholic/Anglican] church fathers hated sexuality and because of it were also disgusted with marriage and women.
For instance, st. John Chrystostom maintained that "where is marriage there is death" (spiritual death because of sex in it).
Augutin was saying that in paradise God provided children for Adam and Eve, because they couldn't have sex. Later he said that Adam and Eve were reproducing themselves like angels. It was him who connected sexuality with original sin. He said that marital sex disallows spouses to attend in communion. This was later officially established in catholic canon. Clement of Alexandria stated that a woman who colours her hair, does makeup, is a fornicator, painted ape and devil's snake (Paidagogos). He said that God will not be able to recognize women with make-up.
St. Thomas Aquinas wrote in his Summa Theologica (2-2 q.151 a. 3 ad 2) that nothing brings down [to hell] man's spirit than the caress of his wife.
St. Jerome said that "spouses live like animals" because "through sexual commixture with wives men do not differ in anything from pigs and other irrational animals"
Something about teachings of Tertulian:
http://www.womenpriests.org/traditio/...
Jerome
http://www.womenpriests.org/traditio/...
Augustine
http://www.womenpriests.org/traditio/...
Thomas Aquinas
http://www.womenpriests.org/theology/...
Ariel Scheib:
"In biblical times, a man was not prohibited from having sexual relations with a woman, as long as it led to marriage. The Bible never explicitly states a woman and man may not have sexual intercourse prior to marriage; therefore, no sanction was imposed for premarital sex, but it was considered a violation of custom (...) rabbinic scholars of the Talmud prohibited prostitution and premarital sex with no intention of marriage."
Orthodox rabbi Shmuley Boteach:
"Many people are surprised to learn that the Torah does not prohibit premarital sex. I challenge you to find any passage in the Jewish scriptures that forbits a man from having consensual sexual relations with any woman he could legally marry. It's just not there! (..) This is not to suggest that Judaism approves of pre-marital sex or promiscuity. (..) Jewish law prohibits an unmarried, unrelated man and woman from being alone long enough to have sexual relations. But these laws come from the Talmud and the Shulchan Aruch, not from the Torah"
[End Quote.]
From the article, History Of The Word "Fornication":
The word "fornication" was first recorded in Middle English around 1303. It comes from the Latin word "fornix," which literally means "a vault" or "an arch." So what does a vault or an arch have to do with committing fornication? At that particular time in Rome, prostitutes solicited customers in archways. It was like a red light district is today.
Of course, the Bible was not originally written in Latin; it was originally written in Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic. The first hand-written English language Bible was produced in the 1380's by John Wycliffe. Then came the Gutenberg Bible, the Oxford Bible, Luther's German Bible, the Tyndale New Testament, the Coverdale Bible, the Matthew-Tyndale Bible, the Geneva Bible, and the King James Bible, which was originally published in 1611. Since the word fornication was first used in the early 1300's and continued to be used in the King James Version of the Bible, which is still being used today, it seems logical that these translators spanning over 200 years must have believed that the word fornication had something to do with prostitution; otherwise, they surely would have used a different word. The word fornication occurs 36 times in the King James Version; fornicator occurs 2 times, and fornicators occurs 3 times.
Furthermore, it's not just a coincidence that the Latin word "fornix" and the Greek word "porneia" both refer to prostitution. Whenever we see the word fornication in the New Testament, it came from the Greek word "porneia." The word "pornography" literally means "stories about prostitutes." It comes from the Greek root porneia. By that definition, the XXX-rated film Deep Throat was not pornography, while the Disney film Pretty Woman was.
Consider Revelation 21:8:
But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death (KJV).
The word "whoremongers" comes from the Greek word "pornos," which can also be translated "fornicators." So a fornicator and a whoremonger is the same thing. A whoremonger is someone who consorts with whores. It can refer to either a prostitute's customer, also known as a John, or a pimp who procures whores.
So there's no question that there is a close connection between fornication and prostitution.
Source: http://whatisfornication.blogspot.com/
From Godrules.net:
With this topic, it was several years before I noticed an odd pattern within english Bible translations, correlating with prevelant church teaching. It is not something easily noticed, yet this error makes a huge impact on the topic of "immorality" and "sin" in general.
If you look at the definitions of various Greek words related to immorality, you discover that some of the definitions of these words have been largely ignored for decades.
For instance, let us consider the term "adultery". When you think about the term "adultery", you likely think of someone cheating on their spouse. Of course, this is one of the main and obvious definitions of adultery. However, notice the red highlighted portion of its definition below:
Word: moiceuw Pronounce: moy-khyoo'-o Strongs Number: G3431 Orig: from 3432; to commit adultery:--commit adultery. G3432 Use: TDNT-4:729,605 Verb Heb Strong: H5003 1) to commit adultery |
Notice that "idolatry" is one component of the definition. How often do you hear people refer to idolatry as "adultery"?
You can also find idolatrous components to these sins as well: "fornication", "revelings", "drug use/sorcery", "harlotry", "gluttony", "orgies", "sodomy" and other such sins.
List of Obscured, Yet Relevant Definitions:
Again, I have to ask you, why don't you and I ever hear pastors preaching about this from the pulpit?
For now, I will let you wonder, as we discuss some of the meanings of these terms from scripture.
First, let us consider the term "fornication". We are told by many that this refers to "sex before marriage". However, that is the least of its definitions as the theology of the Old Testament has only one case where someone is punished for sex before marriage (a daughter playing a whore in her father's house), while all the others do not have a punishment (yet marriage obligations, in the case of a man sleeping with a father's virgin daughter):
Word: porneia Pronounce: por-ni'-ah Strongs Number: G4202 Orig: from 4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry:--sexual immorality. G4203 Use: TDNT-6:579,918 Noun Feminine 1) illicit (unlawful) sexual intercourse |
The term "fornication" actually refers to any form of "sexual immorality" as defined within scripture (as listed within the passages of scripture [see Leviticus 18]). However, note, its second vital definition of worshiping idols or eating food sacrificed unto idols/devils. Again, we can see a definition that has been obscured and lost within our churches. When have you heard of fornication used to refer to "idolatry"? When have you been warned not to commit adultery or fornication with the world?
So, why do each of these words have a double meaning? I believe it comes down to God's Mind. His true theological mindset -
The two Great Commandments:
When God defines each of these terms, we see the twofold design. One side of the sin is a violation of your neighbor's rights. The other side of these sins is a violation of God's rights.
Ok, now lets consider two terms: "orgy" and "revelings".
I have to go out on a limb here and suspect you are thinking the definitions for both are "group sexual intercourse" and "crazy partying" respectively. Am I right?
Now, upfront, I want to indicate to you that the activity of an orgy, as defined today, is sinful in various forms, it could be a form of "chambering", which means defiling the marriage bed (theft of another man's wife). In that, marriage never includes a "group" of people, hence it goes against the ideal design for sex. However, we can not conclude every form of an orgy (today's definition) is a sin, because polygamy is not a sin (one man with more than one wife in bed for instance).
I speculate that most Christians assume the term "orgy" in scripture refers to a bunch of people having sex. As this is what the term means in our current society and what I was thinking prior to doing this study.
However, as I have mentioned in several other articles, many words within scripture are incorrectly defined by Christians today. Terms such as fornication, adultery and lust are generally only partially understood.
Well, it appears that after doing some research, the term in the Greek refers to a drunken party, parade, etc. to a deity, such as Bacchus, who was son of Zeus and represented wine, unrestricted partying, etc. Matter of fact, you can see in CrossWalk.com's Strong's Concordance right here http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/komos.html, that is exactly what it is referring to. And, when you read this definition in Crosswalk, probably like me, you have no clue who Bacchus is nor do you have a clue what occurred in such festivals. Also, interestingly, on Dictionary.com you can see the word history for the term "orgy" and you discover that it changed meanings around the 18th century (keep in mind the KJV Bible was written prior to the 18th Century).
Word History: The word orgy has become connected in the minds of many of us with unrestrained sexual activity, but its origins are much less licentious. We can trace the word as far back as the Indo-European root *werg-, meaning "to do," also the source of our word work. Greek orgia, "secret rites, worship," comes from *worg-, one form of this root. The Greek word was used with reference to the rites practiced in the worship of various deities, such as Orpheus and Dionysus. The word in Greek did not denote sexual activity, although this was a part of some rites. The rites of Dionysus, for example, included only music, dancing, drinking, and the eating of animal sacrifices. Having passed through Latin and Old French into English, the word orgy is first recorded in English with reference to the secret rites of the Greek and Roman religions in 1589. It is interesting to note that the word is first recorded with its modern sense in 18th-century English and perhaps in 17th-century French. Whether this speaks to a greater licentiousness in society or not must be left to the historian, but certainly the religious nature of the word has gone into eclipse. |
However, again, I have to ask you why don't you and I know this already? Is it interesting how so few people truly go into depth and study the Greek and Hebrew. We are sheep without a shepherd, it seems sometimes. Our pastors go to these grand theological seminaries to come out indoctrinated. Did they study this? Why haven't you and I heard about it, if they did?
In Galatians 5:18-21, it discusses the "works of the flesh". I was studying the Greek behind these words today and found some interesting patterns. Most of the sins mentioned can be grouped into for genres:
If you are blind to something, you can not see and will stumble in the dark. Notice, the church always focuses predominantly on number 3 above and seems to minimize the others listed.
But, if you think about it, number 2 and number 4 on the list seems to be the church's main sins. Think about it and consider what James 4 says. The very first verse is talking about strife and sedition among believers. Isn't that the 4th sin on my list above? Yes, the church's blind spot: division and quarrels within its members. Ignoring how violence, evil talking, division, fighting is a sin and how it is rampant in the church. We bear its scars throughout church history. How many denominations are there? Why are there so many denominations? Ponder James 4 and you will know why. It is because of our sinful nature and evil desires.
The term fornication refers to idolatry as well as sexual sin. And the church commits idolatry by forsaking its first love and going after its own desires.
People want and can not have, because they consume it upon their lusts. You adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that friendship with the world is enimity against God? Whosoever is a friend of the world is an enemy of God. - James 4:1 - 4 |
What is being said in this passage? That people are having sex and sleeping around? Of course not. It is referring to the use of adultery in context of your relationship with God. Sexual sin is similar to idolatry. They are intertwined. Idolatry is "cheating on God". Adultery is "cheating on your spouse". So, when you fight, divide, you are committing fornication (idolatry). Look up the definition of fornication. Notice, fornication is not referring to sex before marriage, but rather adultery, incest and idolatry.
What is the common link between adultery, incest and idolatry? They violate love towards God and neighbor by robbing God or your neighbor of what is rightfully due to them. It is not about some intrinsically sinful value to sex. It is about cheating. The sex act is the channel of the cheating, not the sin in itself.
But why is so much of the church blind to these sins? I believe I know the answer. It comes down to a small trail of error early on in church history. A glaring focus on the flesh through the eyes of Gnostic Philosophy, Stoic ideals and Plato's influence.
Early on within church history, the predominant philosophy within the world was that the world was created by the evil one, while the spiritual world was created by God. And these two natures were at war with each other. So, all physical and fleshly desires are evil, while all spiritual desires are good.
Also, interestingly, the same can be said regarding Heaven and Hell. These ideas also were heavily borrowed from the middle ages of church history (can anyone say Dante's Inferno?). Yet, the apostles always made sure to show where the relation ended. Yes, Hell is like Hades, but that does not mean it relates in all Greek conceptual understanding. Yes, the flesh relates to the Gnostic idea of the physical world, yet only to the point of it being corrupted by the evil one, not made by the evil one. Hence, not all physical is evil.
Although Christianity relates partially to these concepts, Paul and John sharply rebuked Gnosticism and this viewpoint of the world. Yet, because of laziness within the church, we find these vain philosophies started to take root early on within the church.
So, this led to a heavy emphasis on physical conduct (sex, marriage, foods, pleasure based activities), while a vacuum was set in place on spiritual side of these sins mentioned in scripture. Hence, today, we see people focus solely on the physical side of these terms relating to sin and totally ignoring the spiritual side of these terms.
What am I saying here? IN OTHER WORDS, because of these errors in definitions you and I have been blinded to the sin of idolatry. The sin of strife, fighting, sedition. It is all related. Intertwined. Because we are told fornication, adultery, lasciviousness, etc., only refers to sex. As a result, we do not understand God correctly and sin in ways we did not realize! Division. Quarrels. Fights. Covetousness. Greed. Power. Selfish control over our own destiny, our own churches, our own money, our own life. All those sins you can not identify anymore, because they have been erased from the definitions in scripture. Because now, it is convenient not to give your life, your church, your will over to Christ.
So, I am saying, put less emphasis on the physical side and more emphasis on the spiritual side of these terms. As, often, you find people adding and expanding the meanings of sin way beyond the meaning and intent of the text. "Revelings" is not a Christian party. Adultery is not looking at a nude photo. Fornication is not fraternizing with a member of the opposite sex (Consider the odd rules at Pennsicola Christian College). The point is to not violate people's rights or dishonor God.
We need more emphasis on exposing the idolatry that can be found within churches today. It is very rampant. Could you imagine your whole church committing adultery?
Is not God jealous? Wouldn't you be, if your spouse cheated on you?
Source: http://www.godrules.net/articles/bibleterminology.htm#heavenhell
Message Board Post:
Many people think the bible says that sex outside of marriage is a sin. But the bible is unclear. In Exodus, chapter 20, in the 10 commandments, we are told you should not commit adultery. Adultery is not defined as having sex outside of marriage. It is defined as having sex with a married person. Nothing is said prohibiting sexual relations between two unmarried people. In fact, in Leviticus we are given a list of every situation in which we should not have sex. We're not to have sex with married people, or with family members, or with animals. We are not prohibited from having sex with an unmarried person who is not in our family.
Some places in the bible state that fornication is a sin. Some wrongly interpret that to mean sex outside of marriage. That is not true. The greek translation identifies fornication as being any "illicit (illegal) sexual activity". But in Leviticus, the bible does not mention sex between two unmarried people as being illicit.
In fact, we read where some of God's greatest leaders, such as King David (who God called a man “after his own heart"), had hundreds of wives and hundreds of unmarried concubines (women kept in the house for the purpose of sex). None of these were considered sins. It is only when David had sex with another man's wife that he committed the sin of adultery.
Source: http://www.youdebate.com/cgi-bin/scarecrow/topic.cgi?forum=13&topic=576
Recent Literal Bible Translation:
According to Wikipedia:
David Bentley Hart (born 1965) is an American philosopher and Eastern Orthodox theologian whose work encompasses a wide range of subjects and genres. A prolific essayist, he has written on topics as diverse as art, literature, religion, philosophy, film, baseball, and politics. He is also an author of fiction. As a religious scholar, his work engages heavily with classical, medieval and continental European philosophy, philosophical and systematic theology, patristic texts, and South and East Asian culture, religion, literature, philosophy and metaphysics. His translation of the New Testament was published in 2017.
The following is from The New Testament: A Translation by David Bentley Hart ...
1 Corinthians 5:
9 I wrote to you in a letter not to associate with the whorish[g].
πόρνοις (pornois): a pornos was often a catamite, or boy prostitute ...
Note how clearer Hart's translation is. The KJV translates pornois as "fornicators" and the NIV and ESV translate it "sexually immoral people." But the better more literal translation is Harts' whorish (or those engaged in prostitution). The traditional translations are not going to do that because it doesn't fit the traditional Augustinian dogma.
1 Corinthians 6 (words in italics my own):
9 Or do you not know that the unjust will not inherit God’s Kingdom? Do not be led astray. Neither the whoring, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor feckless sensualists,[h] nor men who couple with catamites,[i] 10 Nor thieves, nor the acquisitive, nor drunkards, nor the vituperative, nor the rapacious will inherit God’s Kingdom.
[h] μαλακοί (malakoi). A man who is malakos is either “soft”—in any number of opprobrious senses: self-indulgent, dainty, cowardly, luxuriant, morally or physically weak—or “gentle”—in various largely benign senses: delicate, mild, congenial. Some translators of the New Testament take it here to mean the passive partner in male homoerotic acts, but that is an unwarranted supposition.
[i] ἀρσενοκοῖται (arsenokoitai). Precisely what an arsenokoitēs is has long been a matter of speculation and argument. Literally, it means a man who “beds”—that is, “couples with”—“males.” But there is no evidence of its use before Paul’s text. There is one known instance in the sixth century AD of penance being prescribed for a man who commits arsenokoiteia upon his wife (sodomy, presumably), but that does not tell us with certainty how the word was used in the first century (if indeed it was used by anyone before Paul). It would not mean “homosexual” in the modern sense of a person of a specific erotic disposition, for the simple reason that the ancient world possessed no comparable concept of a specifically homoerotic sexual identity; it would refer to a particular sexual behavior, but we cannot say exactly which one. The Clementine Vulgate interprets the word arsenokoitai as referring to users of male concubines; Luther’s German Bible interprets it as referring to paedophiles; and a great many versions of the New Testament interpret it as meaning “sodomites.” My guess at the proper connotation of the word is based simply upon the reality that in the first century the most common and readily available form of male homoerotic sexual activity was a master’s or patron’s exploitation of young male slaves.
In other words, Paul is probably saying that pedophiles exploiting young male slaves will not inherit the Kingdom of God.
Note verse 9, "Neither the whoring." The KJV translates it "neither fornicators," and the NIV and ESV translate it "sexually immoral." But the better more literal translation is Hart's whoring (or prostituting). But the traditional translations are not going to do that because it doesn't fit the traditional Augustinian dogma.
If the more accurate translations (like Hart's) were used, Paul would be seen as actively criticizing pedophiles and pagan prostitution, and not the sexual activities of unmarried consenting adults. But since Augustine’s anti-sex mentality has infiltrated most churches, most of translators prefer to use the ambiguous terms fornication and the sexually immoral.
In his Concluding Scientific Postscript, on page 565, Hart explains:
... Next comes πορνεία (porneia), along with the related substantives πόρνη (pornē) and πόρνος (pornos). Porneia means “prostitution” or (more bluntly) “whoring,” but in most traditional translations it is rendered as “fornication.” ... the word’s meaning is precise and ought not to be obscured. Similarly, a pornē was a female prostitute and a pornos a boy prostitute or hired “catamite,” and prostitutes of both sexes were more often than not slaves. In the former case, most translations of the New Testament do in fact render the term accurately as “harlot” or “whore.” In the latter case, however, they generally settle on “fornicator.” Admittedly, there is a complication here, inasmuch as pornos is used at many junctures in biblical Greek to mean not a catamite, but rather a man who uses prostitutes of either sex; even so, the traditional rendering makes neither meaning obvious. I should also note that all of these words have a certain indelicacy about them, and so I have generally used a coarser word like “whoring” or “whore” rather than something blander, like “prostitution” or “prostitute.”
Note how better translations completely change our understanding about what Paul is actually criticizing. As we learn in Chapter 2 of Sarah Rudin's book Paul Among the People: The Apostle Reinterpreted and Reimagined in His Own, what Paul most focused on condemning was idolatrous sex acts with cult prostitutes in pagan temples, and pedophiles who exploit young people.