Bristow Academy

Instrument Course 2017

Reference:

FAR AIM 2017,Instrument Flying Handbook, Instrument Procedures Handbook, Bristow Handouts, Internet, Flying Academy

Disclaimer:

Absolutely no guarantee that the information here is correct

Stage One Checklist

What is the difference between the Parts?

• Part 61: Outlines requirements for getting licenses; Study by yourself
• Part 91: General operating and flight rules
• Part 27: Requirements, like Farmcow
• Part 121: Rules for scheduled air carriers (regional and major airlines)
• Part 135: Rules for commuter and on-demand operations (all helicopter ops)
• Part 141: Rules for flight school; Sit in classroom
• Part 142: Rules for traning center

What FAA Written Exam are advised to do on the same time?

• Flight Instructor Instrument Rotorcraft (FIH)/Aircraft
• Instrument Ground Instructor (IGI)
• Instrument Rating Rotorcraft (IRH)/Aircraft, needs endorsement.

Visual Scanning and collision avoidance

What is the responsibility of the Instructor?

• The Instructor is safety pilot (91.109(c)) of the flight, doing the lookout for other traffic and VFR Communication.

What is the proper clearing procedure?

• Call out before turn “Clear right, clear left” and wait for answer before initiate the turn.

How do you hand over control?

• Initiate with “Autopilot On/Off”, then normal 3-way handover of controls.

Pilot Aeromedical Factors

What is Hypoxia (AIM 8-1-2)?                                                                         HASH

• Not sufficient oxygen to the brain. Gets euphoria and lose control. Deadly if too long.
• Blue nail, headache, decreased reaction time, judgment, euphoria
• Hypoxic - Lack of O2
• Anemic - Lack of Blood transport
• Stagnate - Block of blood
• Histotoxic - Inability to take O2 (Also Carbon Monoxide poisoning)

What is the oxygen requirements (91.211)?                                                         ICDC

• Between 12,5ˋ- 14ˋ feet oxygen required for flight crew after 30 minutes.
• Over 14ˋ feet oxygen required all time
• Over 15ˋ feet oxygen required for all passengers all time.
• Night is recommended above 5ˋ feet.
• Indifferent: 0-10ˋ feet
• Compensatory: 10-15ˋ feet
• Disturbance: 15-20ˋfeet
• Critical: 20ˋfeet +

What is Hyperventilation and initial symptoms (AIM 8-1-3)?

• Decrease of carbon dioxide in blood/brain increase breath rate. Initial could be drowsiness. Not deadly. Always treat Hyperventilation as Hypoxia if unsure, eg give oxygen.
• No blue nail

Middle Ear

Sinuses:

• Trapped gas (Boyle's Law) inside cavities in skull, Ethmoid, Frontal and Maxillary. Gas expands during descent, and if vent are closed during descent there will be under pressure. Painfull. May require ascent to higher altitude and make a shallower descent.

Motion Sickness:

• Disagreement exist between visually perceived movement and the vestibular system sense of movement. Causing nausea

Carbon Monoxide poisoning (AIM 8-1-4):

• Colorless, odorless and tasteless gas. Reduces the ability of the blood to carry oxygen by binding 240 times more than oxygen to blood cells.
• Headache, drowsiness and dizziness.
• Turn heater off and open air vents.

Drugs and alcohol:

• Impairment of higher cortical functions

The eye:

• Cones are daylight
• Rods are for dark, and need approximately 30 minutes to adapt.

Visual Illusion:

• False Horizon: Clouds confused with horizon or ground,  or confusion of ground lights and stars at night.
• Height-Depth Perception; lack of visual clues because of restricted visibility.
• Structural; Visual obscurantism
• Size-Distance; a larger wider runway may perceived as if altitude is too low.
• Runway slope; Up slope runway creates the illusion of being higher.
• Altered planes of reference; unaccurate sense of altitude, attitude or flight path i relation to an object. Smaller trees than normal, low sun and hill/canyon.
• Relative motion; falsely perceived self motion in relation to the motion of another object.

Night Flying:

• Rods need 30 minutes to fully adapt to dark. Use off center viewing and slower scan.
• Autokinesis: Stationary light will appear to move
• Night Myopia: Eye focus on nothing
• Confusion with ground light: Confusing ground light for stars, could put into unusual attitude.
• Flicker Vertigo: Flashing anti-collision light

Vestibular Illusions (AIM 8-1-5):                                                                         SLICE

• Semicircular canal: Rotation (pitch, bank, yaw)
• Otoliths: Linear acc/dec
• Somatographic: Rapid acc.
• Leans: Slow bank
• Inversion: Climb to level
• Coriolis: New datum in fluid
• Elevator: Turbulence

Illusions in flight (AIM 8-1-5):                                                                 ICEFLAGGS

• Inversion                Climb to straight and level - tumbling backwards
• Coriolis                Head movements in prolonged turns, new reference datum
• Elevator                Updrafts/Downdraft, causes pilot to pitch-up or pitch-down
• False Horizons        Sloping cloud formations, and obscured horizon etx
• Leans                        Banking Illusion, rely on inner ear instead of instruments
• Auto Kinesis                Static light will appear to move when stared at
• Graveyard Spiral        Constant rate turn, losing altitude, pulls up
• Graveyard Spin        After recovery from spin, feel like cont spinning, returns to spin
• Somatogravic                Rapid acc/deac - nose up/down

Personal checklist:                                                                                         IMSAFE

• Illness:
• Medication:
• Stress:
• Fatigue:
• Emotion:

Landing illusions:                                                                                         RRFAG

• Runway width                                        Rain - Greater Height

• Runway & terrain slopes                        Haze - Greater distance
• Featureless terrain                                Fog - Pitching up
• Atmospheric Illusion
• Ground lightning

Airport Operations

Airport Lightning:

• Runway Lights: Red in the end runway (REIL) and green towards the approach
• Runway Edge Lights: Runway edge emit white omnidirectional, yellow replaces white on the last 2000 feet on instrument runways.
• Taxiway Edge Lights: Blue omnidirectional
• Taxiway Center Lights: Green light
• Rotating Beacon: Land (white/green), Water (white/yellow), Military (white/white/green)

When does operation of rotating beacon during day mean?

• Class B, C, D and E sfc areas indicates below VFR conditions (less 1000 feet ceilings, less than 3 SM visibility. In Class E ATC clearance is then needed.

What is RWSL?

• Runway Status Light System: fully automated system that provides runway status to pilots.
• Red lightning if ON.
• If not on, do not give you automatic clearance to pass without ATC Clearance

What are ALS, VASI, PAPI and REIL?

• ALS: Approach light System
• VASI: Visual Approach Slope Indicator
• PAPI: Precision Approach Path Indicator
• REIL: Runway End Identifier Light

Helipad Lightning:

• Perimeter Lights: omnidirectional amber light
• Flood Lights: white light to illuminate landing area.
• Wind Cone: red omnidirectional light
• Rotating Beacon: white/yellow/green

Airport Markings:

FAA Heliport Markings

What is the difference between controlled/uncontrolled airport?

• Controlled (91.123) needs two-way communication established with ATC before entering airspace. Clearance to enter and can not deviate from clearance except emergency or amended clearance.  Uncontrolled needs no communication, but advised on do it on CTAF freq to inform other aircraft your location and intentions. Class D (KTIX) is 4 SM and 2500 feet, when closed it is Class E..

Runway Incursion:

• Incident where unauthorized aircraft, vehicle or person is on the runway, that adversely affect safety.

ATIS:

• Automatic Terminal Information Service

• continuously broadcast information.
• Issued 45 min past the hour

Wake Turbulence:

• Wing tip vortices
• High pressure below aerofoil goes to lower pressure above. Gives a rotational flow that could undesired roll. Rotation is slow and stay on runway if wind is less than 5 kts.
• Fly over path and land after touchdown
• Take off before and fly over path.

AC91-32B Safety around helicopters:

What is Land And Hold Short Operations?                                                         LAHSO

• Gives a clearance to land land on crossing runway and stop before crossing runway. LAHSO clearance also includes possibility for rejected landing/go around.
• Indicated on crossing Runways on Airport Diagram

Air Traffic Control components

What are the different ATC components (AIM 3 and 4)?

• Clearance Delivery: Departure Clearance for IFR flights. Ground or FSS if no Clearance Delivery.
• Ground: movement areas, except runways.
• Tower: Runways and active airspace
• Approach and Departure: From departure to Enroute and Enroute to Departure
• Air Route Traffic Control Center: ARTCC between airports and Enroute. Also above FL180.
• Flight Service Station: FSS provide weather, enroute communications, SAR and relay ATC Communication.
• Airport Information System: ATIS, FSS, AD/F
• Tower Enroute Control: IFR traffic within delegated airspace between two or more adjacent approach control facilities.

What does a weather brief contain?                                                         SACRED WINDS

• Synopsis
• Adverse Condition
• Current Condition
• r
• Enroute Forecast
• Destination Forecast
• Winds Aloft
• IFR/VFR
• NOTAMS
• Delay ATC

What is Mandatory Reporting?                                                                 MATHCALLS

• Missed Approach
• Altitude Change
• True Airspeed Change +- 5% or 10 kts
• Hold
• Climb/Descent
• Altitude and time at Holding Fix
• Leaving and assigned Altitude
• Loss of Equipment
• Safety

What do a position report need?                                                                 IPTANE

• ID
• Position
• Time
• Altitude
• Next Fix/ETA
• Expected following Fix

What do you do if you have IFR Communication Failure (91.185)?                         AVEF MEA

• Course:
• Assigned
• Vectored
• Expected
• Filed (EFC then/or/ ETA)
• Altitude:
• Minimum IFR Altitude
• Expected
• Assigned

What do you get in an abbreviated IFR Clearance?                                         CRAFT

• Clearance Limited
• Route
• Altitude
• Frequency
• Transponder

91.183 IFR Communication:

• Continuous watch under IFR in controlled airspace.

Aircraft Systems Related to IFR Operations

91.103 Preflight Action:                                                                         RAWFAT

• Runway Length
• Alternates
• Weather
• Fuel Requirements, 91.167
• ATC Delays
• Take Off/Landing distance Data

91.205 Equipment Requirements:                                                                 GRABCARD

• Generator
• Radios
• Attitude Indicator
• Ball
• Clock
• Adjustable Altimeter
• Rate of Turn indicator
• Directional Gyro

91.409 Maintenance Inspection Required:                                                 AV1ATESGAL

• Annual, 12 calendar months
• VOR, 30 days
• 100 Hour
• Altimeter, 24 calendar months
• Transponder, 24 calendar months
• ELT, used 1 hr/50% battery life/12 calendar months
• Special Bulletin
• GPS, 28 days, Map/Obstruction 56 days
• Advisory Directives
• Life Limit Parts

What do you need for FAR Night?                                                                 PALISS

• Position Lights
• Anti-Collision Lights
• Landing Light
• Instrument Light
• Source of Power
• Spare Fuses

What do you need for VFR Day?                                                                 SOFATACOS

• Seatbelt
• Oil PSI
• Fuel Gauge
• Altimeter
• Tachometer
• Airspeed Indicator
• Compass
• Oil Temp Gauge
• Shoulder Harness

What you need to check before IFR flight?                                                 ARROW

• Airworthiness: Never expire
• Registration: Expires after 3 year
• Radio Licence
• OP Manual
• Weight and Balance

What is a Magnetometar and IGRF (Garmin G5)?

• The IGRF (International Geomagnetic Reference Field) is a standard mathematical description of the Earth's main magnetic field. It is updated every 5 years; therefore, our avionics require an update to reflect this change.
• Magnetometers used in aviation measure the Earth's magnetic field in order to show orientation. There are of two types: Absolute and Relative (classed by their methods of calibration). Absolute magnetometers are calibrated using their own known internal constants.

What is specific for the R44?                                                                 MARGLOWCCH

• MAP
• Ammeter
• Rotor Tach
• Governor
• Low RRPM Warning
• OAT
• Warning Lights
• CHT
• Carburettor Heat
• Hydraulics

Draw the pitot static system:

Pitot static system failures:

• Blocked pitot: ASI reads zero - ALT works - VSI works
• Blocked Pitot and Drain: ASI like ALT - ALT works - VSI works
• Blocked Static: ASI low climb/high descent - ALT frozen - VSI freeze to zero
• Alternate Static: ASI high - ALT high - VSI momentarily shows a climb
• Broken VSI glass: ASI high - ALT high - VSI reverse
• If no alternate crack VSI, if nor VSI, crack ASI

Any easy way to remember this?                                                                 PUDSOD

• Pitot blocked; Under-reads in Descent
• Static blocked; Over-reads in Descent

How often do the static system need to be controlled if IFR?

• 91.411, every 24 calendar months

How does the Altimeter work?

• Aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.

What is the difference between encoding and non-encoding?

• Encoded altimeters report the aircraft's altitude when interrogated by ground equipment via Mode-C Transponder, Non-encoding gives non.

What kind of errors can you get with the altimeter?

• “High to Low, look below”
• Inherent errors: Non-standard temp and press
• Warmer than standard air; air is less dense and the pressure levels are farther apart. True altitude is higher than indicated.
• Colder than Standard air; Air is denser and the pressure levels are closer together. True altitude is lower than indicated.

What is the maximum allowable error for an ALT?

• With correct pressure setting in the Kollsman window, the altimeter should read within 75 feet of FE.

Why do temperature matter?

• Higher temperature takes more space than colder air, and colder air is more dense than warm air. That is, the air molecules are closer together when it is cold, then when it is wam.

How do you set correct altimeter setting?

• 91.121
• Below 18000 feet:
• Current report setting of a station along route.
• The current report setting from an appropriate available station
• Field elevation before departure
• Above 18000 feet:
• 29.92” Hg

Listening to ATIS to the airport intended to land but still under ATC for the area, can you change it to current airport?

• Not a good idea, since ATC (Orlando App) needs you on a specific altitude for separation. When you are handed over to and stating the approach, the you change.  

What if is abnormally high pressure (91.144)?

• When it exceeds 31” no person may operate an aircraft

How does the VSI works?

• Differential pressure system from the static. Contains a diaphragm and an orifice. Measures the the pressure difference..
• Can show a momentary lag until displays accurate indication.

How does the Airspeed Indicator work?

• Pitot line becomes greater than the static line. Measures the the difference in pressure.

What are the different airspeeds?                                                          ICET

• Indicated Airspeed: IAS on the dial, uncorrected for instrument/system error
• Calibrated Airspeed: Corrected for instrument/position error
• Equivalent Airspeed: CAS corrected for compression in pitot tube
• True Airspeed: CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature

How does the Magnetic compass work?

• Magnets mounted on the compass card align themself parallel to the Earth's lines of magnetic force.

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

• The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float the freedom to rotate and tilt up to approx 18 degrees angle of bank. Pass this and the indications are unreliable.

What are the various compass errors?                                                         ANDS and UNOS

• Oscillation Error
• Deviation Error; Electric and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft
• Variation Error; Angular differences between true and magnetic north.
• Acceleration errors:
• Acc North, Dec South
• On E or W heading thile acc show turn to the north, south if decelerating
• Under shoot north, overshoot south;
• Northerly turning errors; Compass leads turn, stop prior to desired heading
• Southerly turning errors; Compass lags behind the turn, stop after desired heading.
• UNOS Formula: Latitude + ½ bank angle

What are the principal of operation of gyro instruments?

• Rigidity in space; Prevents axis of rotation to tilt as the earth rotates. ATT and HDG uses this.
• Precession; Applied force causes 90 degrees from point in direction. Turn Coordinator uses this.
• Vertical spin in the horizontal plain
• Horizontal spins in the vertical plain

Some of the common power sources?

• Electric
• Pneumatic
• Venturi tube
• Wet type vacuum pump
• Dry air pump

Why is the Turn Coordinator canted 30 degrees?

• Because the precession need to be measured in to different axis. If it had been mounted vertical it will not measure in the vertical axis.

What does the Turn Coordinator provide?

• Miniature aircraft displays rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn.
• The ball indicates the quality of turn.

What is the difference between Slave and Free Mode in a HSI?

• Slaved to the remotely direction sensing device, flux valve a 3 segmented ring with a cap 120 degrees that measures earth's magnetic lines and correct for it. .
• Free mode it is not aligned and can be manually rotated.

How does the HDG indicator work?

• Works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane.
• Limitations is 55 degrees of pitch/bank, past this it known to tumble
• If in free mode it will indicate app 15 degrees error per hour because of earth rotation.

How do you do Timed Turns?

• 3 degrees per second, 1 minute 180, 2 minutes 360

How does the ATT indicator work?

• The gyro is mounted in in a horizontal plane and depends on rigidity in space.
• Horizon bar indicates true horizon and fixed to the gyro.

What is the different modes in a Transponder?

• Mode A: Squawk only
• Mode C; Squawk and Altitude
• Mode S; Squawk, Altitude and Code
• Some of the R44 have Mode S, and when inside the range of ground Radar it will send back signal to the helicopter which gives a kind of TCAS. Those helicopter will also show up on Flightradar when in range.
• If you check the airframe log books, you will find Transponder inspection in front under Radios (in the R44 together with Static system check).

What codes to squawk?

• 1200; VFR
• 7500; Hijack
• 7600; Radio Communication Error
• 7700; emergency
• If you are in a real emergency, it might not be advised to change squawk code at first, since vital data will disappear from Radar.

What is control performance?

• Cross check, Interpret, Aircraft Control

What is the Primary and Supporting instruments?

What is WASP?

• Wings level, Attitude, Speed, Power

How does the VOR operate?

• VHF Omnidirectional Range

• 108-117.975 Mhz, VHF Band
• H-VOR and L-VOR have normal usable distance of 40 NM below 18,000 ft. T-VOR are short range facilities which have power output of app 50 W and usable distance of 25 NM at 12,000 ft and below. Used primary for instrument app in terminal areas, or adjacent to airports.
• Terminal; 1,000 -12,000 ft AGL, 25 NM
• L-VOR; 1,000 - 18,000 ft AGL, 40 NM
• H-VOR; 1,000 - 14,500 ft AGL, 40 NM
• H-VOR; 14,500 - 18,000 ft AGL. 100 NM
• H-VOR; 18,000 - 45,000 ft AGL, 130 NM
• H-VOR; 45,000 - 60,000 ft AGL, 100 NM

What are the different methods of checking the accuracy of VOR equipment (91.171)? VODGA

• VOT; +- 4 degrees, can be found in A/FD, should indicate 360 degrees FROM, 180 TO
• Own; +- 6 degrees
• Dual; +- 6 degrees
• Ground; +- 4 degrees
• Air; +- 6 degrees

What records must be kept concerning VOR Checks (91.171)?                         SLED

• Signature
• Location
• Error
• Date

For IFR off established airways, flight plan needs a list of VOR Navaids no further from each other?

• Below 18,000 ft MSL; 80 NM

Procedure for determining intercept angle of VOR radial?

• Turn to heading parallel desired course, in same direction as course to be flown
• Determine the difference between radial to intercept and radial you are on
• Double the difference gives you the intercept angle, not less than 20 degrees, no more than 90
• Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course
• Turn to intercept
• Hold heading until CDI centers
• Turn to magnetic heading to selected cours

Can you home with a VOR?

• Obviously not as you follow a radial, but instead of intercepting and keep on course on the radial, if you spin the needle you will actually home to the VOR(...)

Can you get a course reversal with a HSI and a VOR?

• No, because it rotates, but you can get it with a Localizer if you put in reverse course (eg KTIX ILS 36, 184 instead of 004)

How does the DME operate?

• Distance Measuring Equipment; receives from VORTAC or TACAN
• Up to 200 NM line in sight
• 960-1215 MHZ (UHF)
• Slant range error; 1 mile for each 1,000 ft of altitude

How does the ILS Work?

• Gives you Lateral and Vertical guidance with the Localizer and Glide Slope.
• Built up of 4 different things: Localizer, GS, Marker Beacons and Light System on Airport.
• Range information with Marker Beacons and DME
• Visual information is Approach Lights, Touchdown, Centerline and Runway Lights.
• Outer: Blue Light, dull tone, slow speed --------, 4 to 7 NM, 1,400 ft AGL
• Middle: Amber light, medium tone, medium speed, -.-.-.-.- 3,500 ft, 200 ft AGL
• Inner: White light, high tone, high speed, ………. between middle marker and threshold

What is Localizer?

• Gives you the Lateral displacement
• 108.10 - 111.95 Mhz and odd tenths
• Normale placed far end of approach runway, range of 18 NM
• 3 to 6 degrees, as necessary to provide linear width of 700 ft at the runway approach threshold
• 2.5 degrees is full deflection left or right

What if you are doing a ILS and loose GS, can you continue?

• Yes, but now it is a Loc only approach with MDA.

What is a Glideslope?

• 329.15-335.0 Mhz

• Gives a vertical guidance to approaching aircraft
• Down the runway from the approach end and to one side.
• Full scale deflection is 0.7 degree, 1.4 degree usable vertical range

What is a ASR Approache?

• Before the advent of GPS approaches, most civilian approach control facilities provided Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approaches, usually as a back-up to pilot-nav approaches. Many are now gone but some airports still have them. In Florida, only two civilian airports have ASR approaches: Key West and Tallahassee, at opposite ends of the state.

What is acceptable navaids?                                                                 SNAPDVC

• Suitable RNAV
• NDB
• ASR
• PSR
• DME
• VOR
• Compass locator

What is a Compass Locator?

• Low range Marker Beacon in the low/medium frequencies normally placed with the outer marker (Localizer Outer Marker - LOM) or Middle Marker (Localizer Middle Marker - LMM).  

What is difference between SDF and LDA approaches?

• Simplified Directional Facility; may or may not be aligned with runway, either 6 or 12 degrees, usable off course indications limited to 35 degrees each side of course line centerline.
• Localizer Type Directional Aid; compares in accuracy to Localizer, but not part of complete ILS. LDA is 3 or 6 degrees, some have GS, course not aligned with runway, straight in within 30 degrees of runway, circling min published if greater than 30 degrees.

Describe GPS

• Global positioning System is satellite based radio navigation system that broadcast a signal used by receivers to determine precise position anywhere in world.
• Space Element; 24 satellites in 6 orbital planes at about 11,000 miles above Earth. At least 5 satellites are in view all times.
• Control Element; Ground based monitoring station ensuring system accuracy
• User Element; Antenna and receiver on board aircraft that provide positioning, velocity and precise timing to the user.
• The receiver determines the range to at least 4 satellites by a timed signal, 3 to triangulate the position and the fourth to calibrate the clock of the receiver.
• Ephemeris is the given status of the satellite, date and time and orbit position.
• Almanac Data sends the entire GPS satellite constellation and course for the day.
• 3 satellites; Lat and Long
• 4 satellites; Lat, Long, Altitude, clock correction
• 5 satellites; 3D and RAIM
• 6 satellites; 3D, RAIM and remove bad signals

What kind of errors are GPS prone for?                                                        SCAGOS

• Signal Multipath
• Clock Error
• Atmosphere
• Geometry
• Orbital Error
• Selective Availability

Can you use GPS for IFR navigation?

• Yes, but must have approved and operational navigation alternate. Active monitoring is not required when GPS uses RAIM for integrity monitoring.

What is the purpose of RAIM?

• Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring verifies integrity/usability of the signal received from the GPS. Needs at least 5 satellites in view or 4 satellites and barometric altimeter to detect anomaly.
• If RAIM is lost it will no longer provide required accuracy.
• You can get prediction from FSS and Internett.

What is the principal of operation of RNAV and RNP?

• Area Navigation allows a pilot to fly a selected course to predetermined point without the need of to fly over ground based navigation facilities, by the use of Waypoints.
• Required Navigational Performance is the amount of allowable lateral error while in the specific portion of flight (departure, enroute, terminal, approach).

What is WAAS?

• Wide Area augmentation System
• GPS Standard Positioning Service
• Provides enhanced integrity, accuracy, availability and continuity over and above GPS SPS

What is LPV?

• LOC with Vertical Guidance is type of APV approach, in addition to LNAV/VNAV, which takes advantage of high accuracy and integrity of WAAS. LPV minimums have DA as low as 200 ft above touchdown with visibility as low as ½ mile.
• Statement in Flight Manual Supplement or Approved Supplemental Flight Manual.

What are several types of GPS approach procedures?

• GPS overlay of pre-existing NP approach
• VOR/DME based RNAV approach
• Stand alone RNAV (GPS) approach
• RNAV (GPS) with vertical guidance (APV)
• RNAV (GPS) precision approach (WAAS and LAAS)

Filing an Alternate when using GPS?

• Must have a non-GPS approach at ETA.
• IF DME/ADF is required, aircraft must have backup non-GPS DME.

What is Technical Standard Orders?

• Defines the standards of the GPS
• TSO-C145/C146 WAAS - Garmin 430

Can you use GPS in lieu of DME/ADF?

• Must be current and able to retrieve waypoints, fixes, intersection and facility locations

STAGE TWO KNOWLEDGE CHECKLIST

WEATHER

Define “ceiling”

• Lowest cloud layer AGL defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial

Northern Hemisphere air flow?

• Low pressure (cyclone); inward, upward, counterclockwise
• High pressure (anticyclone); outward, downward, clockwise

What is a Trough?

• Elongated area of low pressure

What is a Ridge?

• Elongated area of high pressure

What is the Coriolis Effect on wind?

• Deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere.

Difference between stable and unstable atmosphere?

• Stable; resist upward og downward displacement, temperature not change much with altitude, stratiform. smooth, steady, fair to good visibility
• Unstable; disturbance which let grow into vertical og convective current, temperature decreases rapidly and uniform (3 degrees per 1,000 ft), cumuliform, rough, showery, good visibility.

Types of Icing?

• Structural
• Induction system
• Instrument

Types of structural?

• Clear Ice; large drops slowly freeze
• Rime ice; small drops, rapidly freeze
• Mixed; combination

Intensity categories

• Trace; anti-icing not used if less than an hour
• Light; some use of anti-icing
• Moderate; potential hazard, de-icing used
• Severe; hazard, divert immediately

What are the four basic cloud groups?

• Low/Surface to 6,500; Stratus, Stratocumulus and Nimbostratus
• Medium/6,500 to 20,000; Altostratus and Altocumulus
• High/>20,000; Cirrus, Cirrostratus and Cirrocumulus
• Clouds with vertical extend

What are the three conditions necessary for a TS to develop?

• Unstable Air
• Lifting action
• High moisture

What are three stages of a TS?

• Initial; 15-20 minutes, no precipitation,, Cumulus Stage, strong updraughts into a CB
• Mature; CU->CB/TS, heavy precipitation, up/downdraughts, hail, lightning, gusts
• Dissipating; precipitation, downdraughts, anil on top
• Keep min 20 NM distance from
•  big TS, can slingshot hail far away and turbulence.

Are there any hazards associated with TS?

• Turbulence due to up and downdrafts
• Hail
• Icing

What are the five types of Fog?                                                                 SUPAR

• Steam Fog; Cold air (-25C) over warmer water
• Upslope Fog; Moist stable air cooled adiabatically by wind upslope
• Precipitation Fog; Warm rain into cool air, evaporation saturates. Warm fronts.  
• Advection Fog, moist warm air over colder ground, deepens with 15 kts of wind, can happen anytime
• Radiation Fog; Clear calm night, high humidity
• Fog can be expected when temperature/dew point are within three degrees.
• Form by cooling air to dew point and adding moisture to air

What is METAR?

• Format for reporting weather information, containing date and time in Zulu, winds direction and velocity, visibility, cloud coverage and cloud base, temperature and dew point, barometric pressure, reported every hour 45 min passed.

What is TAF and duration?

• Terminal Area Forecast
• Normally 30 hours
• Updated every six hours.

What is Automated Weather Observing System?

• AWOS
• Minute to minute update via VHF, NDB or dedicated phone number.
• AWOS A; Pressure
• AWOS 1; AWOS A + wind direction and velocity + temp/dew point
• AWOS 2; The above + Visibility
• AWOS 3; All above + Clouds and ceiling
• Indicated on the METAR as eg A02

What frequency is Area Forecast issued?

• Three times per day.

What are the three types of in-flight weather advisories?

• AIRMETs - Forecast
• SIGMETs - Forecast
• Convective SIGMETs - Forecast/Observation

What is an AIRMET (WA)?

• Advisory of significant weather phenomena, but describes conditions at intensities lower than a SIGMET.
• Sierra; IFR Conditions and Mountain Obscuration
• Tango; Turbulence
• Zulu; Icing
• Every 6 hour, valid for 6 hour.

What is a SIGMET (WS)?

• Non-Convective weather, potentially hazards to all aircraft.
• Unscheduled and valid for 4 hours
• Includes Icing and Turbulence not associated with Thunderstorms.

What is a Convective SIGMET (WST)?

• Tornadoes, line of thunderstorms and TS over wide area, embedded TS, hail greater ¾ inch diameter, gust over 50 kts.
• A Convective SIGMET is valid for 2 hours and they are issued every hour + 55 min.

What is HIWAS?

• Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service continuously broadcast of Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs and Urgent PIREPs.
• Indicated by H in box on chart..

What is EFAS?

• Enroute Flight Advisory Service on 122.0 for low enroute operations.
• Normally available from 6AM to 10PM

What are Aviation Area Forecast (FA)?

• Forecast of VMC and general weather conditions over an area the size of several states.
• Three times a day

What is Winds Aloft (FD/FB)?

• 4 times daily and valid for six hours.
• 2710+04; wind from 270, 10 kts, +4C
• Subtract 50 and add 100 system.
• 760646; wind from 260, 106 kts, -46C

What is SIGWX Chart?

• Low Level; Significant Weather provide a forecast intended for guidance for pre-flight briefings.
• Four times a day.
• 12-hour and 24-hour prognosis.
• Up to 24.000 ft MSL.

What is Prognostic Chart?

• Forecast
• 2 days
• Up to 24.000 ft MSL.

What are NOTAMs?

• Notices to Airmen. Contain time critical information that may affect you decision to make a proposed flight.

What are the three types of NOTAMS?

• NOTAM D (Distant); Navigation Facilities out of service.
• NOTAM L (Local); Taxiway closure, VASI out of service, etc
• FDC NOTAM (Regulatory); Changes to Instrument Approach Procedures, TFR, Amendments to Chart.

IFR REGULATIONS

Can you do a IPC in a AATD?

• No, because you need a transition to land (Practical Test Standard)

Oh, are you current for a IFR Flight?                                                 Hit 6 in AATD

• 61.57
• 2 Calendar months
• 3 hours
• Unusual Att, 2 App VNE, 2 App Stall
• Six instrument approaches
• Hold
• Intercept
• Track

or

• 6 Instrument Approaches, holding patterns and intercepting/tracking of course using navigation aids within six months.

If expires, what to do be current again?

• Within six months, complete the requirements with a safety pilot in Simulated IFR only.
• After six months, check with an examiner, authorized instructor or FAA approved person

What do the Safety Pilot need (91.109c)?

• Current Medical
• Private with category/Class
• If IFR FP ---) Instrument Rating

What do you need to get Instrument Rating?

• 50 XC PIC
• 40 hours Instrument
• 15 Instrument Dual CFI
• 3 h Instrument 60 days before the test
• 250 nm XC IFR with 3 different approaches

What is required for the Certification if Private Pilot?

• More than 17 years old
• Read/Speak English
• US Student Pilot Certificate
• Third Class Medical
• Required ground/Flight Training
• Aeronautical experience required 40 hours
• Pass Knowledge and Practical test

What paper do you need to have in your possession?

• Pilot Certificate
• Valid Photo ID
• Current Medical

How long is the Medical valid for?

Do need anything more?

• 61.56 Biennial Flight Review

If you are carrying passengers?

• 90 days 3 t/o land landings
• Night: 3 landings after 1 hour sunset.

What are the Commercial Privileges under Part 91?                         6FINEPEAS & FABCHOP (119.1)

• 6 flights within 25 nm radius, max 2 pax, day VFR, Part 91 aircraft, 72H notification to FSDO, no cargo, approved by FAA, max 6 flights per calendar year.
• Ferry or training flights
• Instruction
• Non-Stop sightseeing
• Emergency mail service
• Parachute operations
• Elections
• Areal work - FABCHOP
• Sling load, Part 133

• Fire Fighting
• Aerial Photography
• Banner Towing
• Crop Dusting
• Helicopter operations in construction
• O
• Power line/Pipe patrol

When is a Instrument Rating required?

• On a IFR FP
• Class A
• Weather conditions less than VFR
• SVFR in Class B, C, D and E between sunset and sunrise

What must be reported in IFR (AIM 5-3-3)?                                                 SWAMPMIREEF

• Safety of flight
• Weather (Adv/unforecast)
• Altitude (Prior to vacating)
• Missed
• Performance 5%, 10 kts, 500 FPM
• Mandatory *
• Instrument Failure: Tail #, Equipment, Capable IFR, Ass Needed (TECA)
• Requested
• Enter/Exit Hold
• ETA +- 2 min *
• Final *
• * Not required with Radar Contact

What are the different SIAPs concerning helicopters (AIM 10-1-2)?

• Helicopters can fly any SIAPs which they are properly equipped.

What is approach procedure to VFR Heliports (AIM 10-1-3)?

• Not design standards for IFR.
• Needs visual contact with landing site.
• Obstacles may be in the segment, pilot's responsibility to see and avoid.
• Need to see at least one of the following:
• FATO or FATO lights
• TLFOF or TLOF lights
• Heliport Instrument Lightning System (HILS)
• Heliport Approach Lighting System (HALS) or lead in light
• Visual Glideslope Indicator (VGSI)
• Windsock within 500 ft of the TLOF
• Heliport Beacon within 500 ft of the TLOF

How is the difference with a PinS procedure?

• MAP more than 2 SM the landing site and 30 degree
• Must have appropriate VFR weather minimums in the visual segment
• If in controlled airspace you can ask for a SVFR.

CROSS COUNTRY FLIGHT PLANNING

What must a PIC be familiar with before a flight?                                         NWKRAFT

• NOTAMs
• Weather reports and forecast
• Known ATC Delays
• Runway Lengths of intendent use
• Alternates if flight cannot be completed as planned
• Fuel Requirements
• Takeoff and landing distance

What do the Helicopter need to fly IFR?                                                        FASTAS

• Flight Director
• Attitude Retention System
• SAS
• Trim
• Autopilot
• SFC/Aerodynamics

Takeoff minimums?

• Part 91: None
• Good practice is use the minima in the IAP, if none, basic VFR Min (>1000 ft, 3 SM)
• Standard Helicopter is ½ SM Visibility

How do you consider Risk Elements?                                                         PAVE

• PIC; IMSAFE, limitations to pilot
• Aircraft; Familiarity, aircraft limitations
• enVironment; familiar with airports, enroute, air spaces, terrain etc
• External Pressure; loss of comms, adverse weather, need to be itis

What is preferred IFR route?

• Between busier airports to increase efficiency and capacity
• Correlated with SID and STAR

When is an Alternate required?

• At ETA and 1 hour after ETA, ceiling >1,000 ft AGL, >400 ft above lowest approach minima, whichever is higher, visibility >2 SM

What is the Minimums to use an Airport as Alternate?

• ETA ceiling >200 ft above the approach to be flown, but never less than the approach to be flown.
• If non, visibility minima allowing descent from MEA, Approach and landing under Basic VFR.

Can you file an IFR FP to a non-IFR Airport?

• Yes, but you must file an alternate airport.

Can you depart in uncontrolled/Class G Airspace and enter clouds without getting an IFR Clearance?

• Yes (91.175, but restricted if Part 121, 125, 129, 135)
• ATC will not issue any clearance->uncontrolled

If you are “cleared as filed”, does this guarantee route and altitude?

• No, only the route.

Takeoff minimums Standard/Non-Standard?

• Triangle T placed in notes section signifies non-standard, check the TPP

What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?

• Pilot crossing departure end of runway >35 ft above elevation
• Climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turn
• Maintain minimum climb of 200 ft/NM
• TPP Section C, IFR Takeoff Minimums and Departure Procedures

What is recommended climb procedure to an assigned altitude?

• Climb at Vy (or Vx) until 1,000 ft below, then 500-1500 fpm until assigned altitude.

Must you accept a SID if assigned one?

• No, notify ATC or FP specify “NO SID”
• Only graphical

What is the quickest way to tell if an airport has Instrument Approach on the Enroute Low Altitude Chart?

• Blue Airports, published in DOD FLIP.
• Green Airport, published in TPP and DOD FLIP.
• Brown has not approach

What do the solid blue line represent?

• Low Altitude RNAV (GPS) routes only. Begins with a T
• TK is helicopter routes only.

How long is a Filed Flight Plan valid (91.169)?

• 1 hour 30 minutes past the proposed departure time

What are important altitudes to know?

• MEA; Minimum Enroute Altitude, ensures acc navigation signal/Obstacle clearance
• MOCA; Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude, ensures obstacle clearance and navigational signal coverage within 25 SM (25 NM) of a VOR
• MCA; Minimum Crossing Altitude, lowest altitude at fix when proceeding in direction of a higher MEA.
• MRA; Minimum Reception Altitude, lowest altitude a intersection can be determined
• MAA; Maximum Authorized Altitude, highest which ensure adequate navaid signals
• OROCA; Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude, 1,000 ft in non mountainous, 2,000 ft in mountainous. May not provide signal coverage. Big numbers on chart.

Cruising altitudes for IFR (91.179)?

• Controlled; ATC Assigns
• Uncontrolled below 18,000 ft
• 0-179 Degrees Odd thousand
• 180-359 Degrees Even thousands
• Based on Magnetic Course, not Heading

Instrument Departure, Enroute and Arrival Procedure and Clearance

What is a Departure Clearance?                                                                 CRAFT

• Clearance limit
• Route
• Altitude
• Frequencies
• Transponer
• Write down on kneeboard before contact Clearance, and write down amendment.

If you are VFR at night and inadvertently get into clouds and call for a “POP UP IFR CLEARANCE”, should you move up or down to get an IFR altitude?

• No, stay on altitude until instructed by ATC. Gives you 500 ft separation if there is an IFR plane above or below you.

What is VFR-On-Top?

• IFR clearance in VFR conditions.
• May want to choose altitude because of turbulence, winds, haze, smoke etc-

What does “Clearance void time” mean?

• When operating from a non-towered field, this is the time which the IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATC.

What is Contact Approach?

• IFR FP requested to deviate from instrument approach and proceed to destination airport by visual reference to surface.  Contact approach has no published mist.
• Visibility minimum 1 SM and Clear of Clouds
• Pilot must request

What is “Cleared for the Visual”?

• Airport or preceding aircraft in sight.
• Must be cleared by the Tower.
• Reported weather must be VFR (ceiling >1,000 ft, visibility >3 SM)

APPROACH PLATE FAMILIARITY AND BRIEFING

When is a procedure turn not required?                                                         SHARPTT

• Straight in
• Hold in lieu of a procedure turn
• Arc
• Radar Vectored
• NoPT on chart
• Teardrop entry in lieu of procedure turn
• Timed entry

What is Decision Height?

• Height at which decision must be made, during ILS, MLS or PAR instrument approach to either continue or execute missed.
• Precision Approach

What is Minimum Descent Altitude?

• MDA is lowest altitude, in MSL, to which descent to final or circle-to-land maneuvering.
• Non-Precision Approach

When can pilot descend below MDA or DH?

• Stabilized for landing
• Flight visibility not less than prescribed in standard instrument approach used
• At least one of the following visual references is visible and identifiable:
• Approach light system, ALS, Red bars
• Threshold and markings/lights
• Touchdown Zone and markings/lights
• Runway and markings/lights
• REIL
• VASI

What is the GPS overlay program?

• Authorized for pilots to use GPS avionic under IFR for flying designated NPA, except LOC, LDA and SDF.

What is VDP?

• Visual Descent point, defined point on final approach course of a NP straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from MDA to RW touchdown point may be commenced.
• VDP identified by V in profile view

What is VDA?

• Vertical Descent Angle; NP approach procedure feature described computed path from FAF and altitude to RW threshold at published Threshold Crossing Height (TCH).
• Stabilized descent from FAF to TCH.

What is Stepdown fix?

• Permits additional descent within a segment of IAP by identifying a point at which a controlled obstacle has been safely overflown.

What do you need to see to continue to land?                                                 VVAARRTT

• Vis Req
• VASI
• ALS
• A/C position
• REIL
• RWY x3
• Threshold x3
• TDZ x3

When must a pilot execute a missed approach?

• At MAP and RW environment not in sight.
• At DH on GS with RW environment not i sight.
• Anytime a safe landing is not possible
• When Circle-To-Land Visual is lost
• When instructed by ATC

On a NPA, how is MAP determined?

• Timing from the FAF
• By a Fix
• By Waypoint defined by GPS or VOR/DME.

On a PA, how is MAP determined?

• DH/DA for the ILS

APPROACH PROCEDURES

VOR Approach Procedure

ILS Approach Procedures

What is GPS Procedures?                                                                         SACTIA

• Select
• Activate
• Confirm
• Terminal
• Intercept
• Approach

Holding Procedure

• Leg is 1 minute on inbound at or below 14,000 ft

Five T’s for holding?

• Turn
• Time
• Twist
• Throttle
• Talk

DME Arc Procedure

• DME Arc is a kind of change of direction without doing procedure turn.

• Turn 10, Twist 10

Aeronautical Decision Making

Risk element

• 3 P’s
• Perceive (the hazard)
• Process (evaluate risk)
• Perform (risk management)

Stress and work overload

Hazardous Attitudes

What does Single Pilot Resource Management refer to?

• SRM refers to effective use of all available resources; Human, Hardware, information, dispatchers, weather briefers, maintenance personnel, air traffic controllers.

The DECIDE model of decision involves which elements?

• Detect
• Estimate
• Choose
• Identify
• Do
• Evaluate

Controlled Flight Into Terrain

Terms

How do you think CFIT may occur?

• Descend below published minimums on a approach
• Change in terrain height occurs and aircraft does not climb to the appropriate safe altitude
• Distraction due to system failure or determine cause of any abnormality
• Pure inattention to detail
• Extreme Weather Conditions

CFIT Risks?                                                                                         TEAM

• Transfer
• Eliminate
• Accept
• Mitigate

or                                                                                                3Ps

• Preceive
• Process
• Perform

CFIT Avoidance

How can you reduce the risk?                                                                CARATS

• CFIT
• ADM
• Risk Management
• Automation Management
• Task Management
• Sitauasionall Awereness

STAGE THREE KNOWLEDGE CHECKLIST

IFR Emergency

What are the required reports for malfunction IFR Controlled Airspace?

• Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF or low frequency receiver
• GPS anomalies
• Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver
• Impairment of Air/Ground comms
• Loss of anything that may impair safety of flight

IFR Lost Communication altitude order?                                                         AVEF

• Assigned
• Vectored
• Expected
• Filed

What equipment failure are you required to report to ATC?                                 CAN

• Communication
• Approach
• Navigation

Leave Clearance limit (91.185):

• Fix from which an approach begins;
• EFC - hold, leave at EFC and shoot approach
• No EFC - hold, leave at ETA and start approach
• Fix from which an approach does not begin;
• EFC - hold, at EFC fly to a point which and approach begins, and start approach
• No EFC - Upon arrival over the CL, proceed to fix which an approach begins and at ETA, start the approach.
• Visual under

Airspaces:

Describe airspaces from the arrow up to 18.000 ft:

• Golf from SFC to 700 ft
• Echo from 700 to 1300 ft
• Charlie from 1300 to 3000 ft
• Bravo from 3000 to 10.000 ft
• Echo from 10.000 to 18.000ft
• Alfa from 18.000

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Acronyms

How does the Sprag Clutch work?

Example how I drove it on the whiteboard: