I write on behalf of a Texas newspaper because I urgently seek your thoughts for a newspaper story as we check a claim by the U.S. senator from Texas, Ted Cruz.
Cruz, opposing the “Obamacare” law, said on the Senate floor this week: "If we go to the 1940s, Nazi Germany--look, we saw it in Britain. Neville Chamberlain told the British people: Accept the Nazis. Yes, they will dominate the continent of Europe, but that is not our problem. Let's appease them. Why? Because it can't be done. We cannot possibly stand against them."
Is this accurate, factually speaking?
If so, why? If not, why not?
What primary resources would you recommend we consider?
Any fellow authorities?
Thank you very much.
W. Gardner Selby
Of course Neville chamberlain didn't say that in the 1940s, he means the 1930s, but he didn't even say that in the 1930s either. He guaranteed Poland in 1939 and we were allied to France, so of course he didn't say Europe was not our problem. He declared wa(r) in sept 1939 sooner than have the Nazis in Poland and under Chamberlain we put troops into Belgium.
On Sep 27, 2013, at 1:10 PM, "Selby, Gardner (CMG-Austin)" <email@example.com> wrote:
Do you see any element of truth to the claim? If so, what?